Question Paper of  Kerala Public Service Commission Tutor in Materia Medica Examinations 1991
Maximum:100marks Time : 2 hrs only

1.Mazger did an experiment with cimicifuga in 1951 and 1953 with 17 persons of whom 14 women physicians. Write the modalities and sphere of action of this drug on its reproving. (5 marks)

2.The great “thirstless’ pulsatilla patients are thirsty on three occasions. What are the occasions ? (3 marks)

3. Write two drugs each to .the following.

• (a) Cough on brushing the teeth.
• (b) Difficult respiration > by eating. (4 marks)

4. Give one word answer:

• (a) “ltching of the skin worse after coition “
• (b) “ Dreaming of skeleton.”
• (C) What is “ Apioum virus “
• (4) A drug having clock like modality.
• (e) ‘ Better by thinking” (5 marks)

5. Describe the disease causation in co1ocynth. Write it’s drug relationship.(4 marks)

6. Write three sentences for each drug:. ( 5 marks)
Mental symptoms of Benzoic acid and cyclamen

7. Write the most appropriate drug:

• (a) Itching appears each year in a patient having headache that alternate with lumbago.
• (b) Toothache relieved by opening the mouth and drawing in cold air.
• (c) Cannot. bear to be touched : Start touched ever so lightly especially on the feet.
• (d) Complementary and follow up drug to Rhustox in injury.
• (e) Exfoliation of the skin during full and realmoon (5 marks)

8. Write short notes on dipsomania. The commonly used drugs, potency and repetition are also to be mentioned.         10 Marks

9. What are the rules to be followed in a case of Ars alb in different disease conditions in different potency? (5Marks)

10. What is the drug scientifically proved and found to be effective for AIDS at Prinston University in America ? What is the name the Scientist?  ( 2 marks)

11. Differentiate a Cyclamen menses with Zinc. met. (5 marks)

12. Compare and contrast the following:—

• (a) Cough of cup met and stannum met.
• (b) Skin symptoms of croton tig and thüja.           (10 marks)

13 What is the meaning of desire to be magnetized ? Write three appropriate drugs.(5 marks)

14. Give the indications of the following :

• (a) Raphanus in mental symptoms,
• (b) Staphisagria in sexual passion.
• (c) Kali carb in rheumatism.
• (d) Sulphur iodide in skin disease.
• (e) Myopic astigmatism of Lil.tig. (20 marks)

15 How will you prescribe the following by giving sufficient reasons —

• (a) Ledum and Hypericum in injuly.
• (b) Mezerium and Petroleum in skin disease. (12 marks)

Kerala Public Service Commission Tutor  in Materia Medica  Examinations 2004
Maximum : 100 marks Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1. The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.

2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the question booklet.

3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in the address list intended for obtaining your signature and also in the seat allotted to you in the Examination Hall.

4. If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in die address list/seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY

5. The Question Booklet Serial number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha code.

6. Write the question booklet alpha code in the space provided in Part B of the answer sheet and darken the appropriate bubble.

7. The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.

8. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the. candidate should check that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not have imprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.

9. Do not write or mark anything on your question booklet. A separate paper will be provided for rough work. .

10. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your answers.

11. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.

12. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.

13. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.

14. Strict compliance of instructions is essential Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the summary disqualification of the candidate.

1. Podophyllum has fever paroxysm usually at:

• (A) 3.00 p.m.   (B) 12.00 at midnight.
• (C) 11.00a.m.  (D) 7.00a.m. 

2. Complementary relationship is found in :

• (A) Aconite — Sulphur.          (B) Mercurious – Silicea.
• (C) Causticum – Phosphorus. (D) Nux vom. – Camphora.

3. “Coition prevented by extreme sensitiveness of vagina” is a symptom of:

• (A) Thuja only.                   (B) Platina only.
• (C) Both Thuja and Platina. (D) Neither Thuja nor Platina.

4. Thuja is indicated in diarrhoea resulting from :

• (A) Coffee only.          (B) Onion only.
• (C) Vaccination only. (D) All of the above.

6.”Sensation of something alive in the abdomen” is found in :

• (A) Nux mosch. only  . (B) Sulphur only.
• (C) Croc. sat. only.      (D) Nux mosch.. Sulphur and Croc. sat.

6. “Patient perspires when he sleeps but stops when he wakes up” may require :

• (A) Thuja.                        (B) Sambucus.
• (C) Thuja and Sambucus. (D) Neither Thuja nor Sambucus.

7. “Time passes too quickly” is a feature of:

• (A) Arg. nit.       (B) Theridion.
• (C) Can.indica.  (D) Nux mosch.

8. “Vertigo on closing the eyes” belongs to the portrait of:

• (A) Lachesis only.                (B) Lachesis and Theridion only.
• (C) Theridion and Thuja only. (D) Lachesis, Thuja and Theridion.

9. “Palpitation violent when lying on left side, goes off when turning to the right” belongs to the pathogenesis of:

• (A) Gelsemium.    (B) Tabacum.
• (C) Thuj’a occ       (D) Cactus g.

10. Which of the following is not correct in respect of the bad effects of Tobacco ?

• (A) Phosphorus for Tobacco heart.
• (B) Ignatia for hiccough.
• (C) Nux vom. for occipital headache and vertigo.
• (D) Sepia for right sided facial neuralgia.

11. “Aversion to alcohol” is not found in :

• (A) Psorinum only.    (B) Tuberculinum only.
• (C) Sulphur only.       (D) All of these drugs.

12. According to Dr. H.C. Alien, when Nux vom and Sulphur improved, but fail to cure piles, which of the following drugs is useful:

• (A) Psorinum.     (B) Aesc. hip.
• (C) Acid nit.        (D) Ratanhia.

13. “Child unable to hold up the head” is a feature of:

• (A) Aethusa cyn. only.                 (B) Abrotanum only.
• (C) Both Aethusa and Abrotanum. (D) Neither Aethusa nor Abrotanum.

14. “Complaints appear diagonally ; upper right and lower left” is found in :

• (A) Ambra gr. only.      (B) Bromium only.
• (C) Medorrhinum only. (D) All of these medicines.

16. “Imaginary odour before the nose, as of herring or music” is a symptom of:

• (A) Agnus cast   . (B) Lycopodium.
• (C) Kalibich.         (D) Platina.

16. “Colicky pain in abdomen after eating cucumber” can be cured by :

• (A) China.         (B) Allium Cepa.
• (C) Colocynth.   (D) Pulsatilla.

17. Which of the following features is common to Aloes, Psorinum, Rumex and Sulphur ?

• (A) Headache < in winter.
• (B) Itching of the skin, < from cold, > by warmth.
• (C) Early morning diarrhoea driving the patient out from bed.
• (D) When passing flatus, sensation as if stool would pass with it.

18. Which of the following medicines is called as “Aconite of Chronic diseases” ?

• (A) Hamamelis.    (B) Sulphur.
• (C) Hepar sulph.   (D) Alumina.

19. “Even soft stool requires great straining” is a symptom of:

• (A) Alumina only.                  (B) Anacardium and Platina only.
• (C) Alumina and Platina only. (D) Alumina, Anacardium and Platina.

20. “Presence of others, even the nurse is unbearable during stool” is a symptom of:

• (A) Ignatia.            (B) Calc.carb.
• (C) Ambra grisea.  (D) Nat.mur.

21. “Diarrhoea before menses” is a feature of:

• (A) Ammon carb.    (B) Podophyllum.
• (C) Pulsatilla.         (D) Ars. alb.

22. “Menstrual bleeding worse at night” is found in :  

• (A) Bovista only.        (B) Ammon mur. only.
• (C) Both (A) and (B).  (D) Neither (A) not (B).

23. Which of the following symptom is common to Anacardium, Lac. en. and Lit. tig :

• (A) Forgets recent things, but remembers remote things.
• (B) Aggravation in empty stomach.
• (C) Irresistible desire to curse and swear.
• (D) Lack of confidence in him self and others.

24. Which of the following symptoms is not peculiar to Antim. crud ?

• (A) Loss of voice from becoming over-heated.
• (B) Craving for cold bathing.
• (C) Constant discharge of flatus up and down, for years ; belching tasting of ingesta.
• (D) Irresistible desire to talk in rhymes.

25. “Extraordinary craving for apples” is found in :

• (A) Aloes, only.                   (B) Antim. tart. only.
• (C) Aloes and Antim. tart.    (D) Antim. tart. and Antim. crud.

26. “Vomiting in any position except lying on right side” is a characteristic feature of:

• (A) Ars. alb    . (B) Ipecac.
• (C) Bismuth.    (D) None of these drugs.

27. Which of the following symptoms is common to Kali bich. Apis mel. and Lac can ?

• (A) Shifting nature of pain
• (B) Thirstlessness with dry tongue.
• (C) Obsessiveness with forgetfulness.
• (D) Delayed, scantly, painful menses with increased sexual desire and weeping disposition.

28. The source of “Tarentula hispania” is :

• (A) Spanish spider.        (B) Cuban spider.
• (C) Black Cuban spider. (D) Black Hispania spider.

29. The source of “Theridion” is:

• (A) White Cuban spider    . (B) Cuban spider.
• (C) Spanish spider.            (D) Orange spider.

30. “Vicarious menstruation” is a common feature of:

• (A) Bryonia and Phosphorus.    (B) Phosphorus and Sabina.
• (C) Bryonia and Sabina.           (D) Bryonia, Sabina and Phosphorus.

31. “Craving for salt” is a common feature of:

• (A) Nat. mur. and Sepia.     (B) Nat. mur. and Graphites.
• (C) Phos. and Graphites.     (D) Phosphorus and Argentum nit.

32. “Craving for milk” is found in :

• (A) Rhus tox. and Aethusa cyn   . (B) Sabadilla and Nat. carb.
• (C) Rhus tox. and Sabadilla.         (D) Rhus tox. and Nat. carb.

33. Opium, Chelidonium and plumbum met, have the following characteristic symptom in common:

• (A) Right sided’ paralysis.          (B) Black, ball like stool
• (C) Sweat on the covered parts. (D) Dementia of the aged persons.

34. Petroleum. Nat. carb. and Phosphorus manifest which the following symptoms, in common ?

• (A) Aggravation from eating cabbage.
• (B) Diarrhoea after taking milk.
• (C) Ailments from riding in a carriage.
• (D) Complaints worse before and during thunderstorm.

35. “Aversion to sweet” is found in :

• (A) Sepia.            (B) Tuberculinum.
• (C) Staphysagria. (D) Graphites

36. The medicine (s) usually used in contused wound is/are :

• (A) Arnica only.                  (B) Hamamelis only.
• (C) Arnica and Hamamelis. (D) Neither Arnica nor Hamamelis.

37. According to H.C. Alien, in “delirium” :

• (A) Belladonna occupies a place midway between Hyoscyamus and Stramonium.
• (B) Hyoscyamus occupies a place midway between Belladonna and Stramonium.
• (C) Stramonium occupies a place midway between Belladonna and Hyoscyamus.
• (D) Stramonium can be prescribed when Belladonna and Hyoscyamus fail to relieve.

38. In Hyoscyamus, cough is :

• (A) < when lying down, at night, after drinking, talking and > by sitting up,
• (B) < while sitting up, during day time, after eating, > while lying down.
• (C) < while lying down, at night, > after eating and drinking.
• (D) < talking, singing, > while lying down.

39. “Thin, watery Leucorrhoea” is commonly not found in :

• (A) Sepia.         (B) Alumina.
• (C) Syphilinum. (D) Hydrastia can.

40. Find the correct order/sequence of medicines to be prescribed :

• (A) Sulphur -> Calc. carb. -> Lycopodium.
• (B) Calc.carb. -» Sulph. -»• Lyco.
• (C) Lyco -^ Calc. carb. -> Sulph.
• (D) Sulphur -> Lyco. -> Calc.carb.

41. Find the odd match (Drug – symptom) out:

• (A) Sepia – fond of company.    (B) Causticum – Sympathetic.
• (C) Lachesis – loquacious.’       (D) Nat. mur. – obsessive.

42. Which of the following medicines is fastidious :

• (A) Lycopodium.   (B) Aconite nap.
• (C) Carcinosin.     (D) Tuberculinum.

43. In which of the following medicines, “aversion to company” is found :

• (A) Nat. mur.     (B) Bismuth.
• (C) Lac. can.     (D) Kali carb.

44. Calc. phos., Baryta carb. and Gelsemium have the following symptom, in common :

• (A) Amelioration of complaints when thinking of them.
• (B) Aggravation of symptoms when thinking of them.
• (C) Aggravation of symptoms when lying on the left side
• (D) All symptoms are worse during mense mental labour and at night.

45. Complementary to Tsorinum” is :

• (A) Sulphur only.                            (B) Tuberculinum only.
• (C) Both Sulphur and Tuberculinum. (D) Neither Sulphur nor Tuberculinum.

46. According to William Boericke, Psorinum patient does not improve while using :

• (A) Coffee.     (B) Cigarette.
• (C) Tea.         (D) Opium.

47. “Alternate diarrhoea and constipation” is not found in :

• (A) Abrotanum.     (B) Croton tig.
• (C) Antim. crud.   (D) Sulphur.

48. “Bleeding from warts” is the characteristics symptom of:

• (A) Nit.acid.        (B) Calc.carb.
• (C)- Dulcamara.  (D) Nat. mur.

49. “Urticaria after violent exercise” indicates :

• (A) Sepia.      (B) Nat. mur.
• (C) Rhus tox. (D) Arnica.

60. “Itching without eruptions” belongs to the pathogenesis of:

• (A) Graphites.     (B) Dolichos.
• (C) Nat.mur.       (D) Sarsaparilla.

61. “Pain better while thinking of it” is a feature of:

• (A) Camphora only.                        (B) Helleborus only.
• (C) Both Camphora and Helleborus. (D) Neither Camphora nor Helleborus.

52. During collapse, the body surface is cold to touch, yet the patient cannot bear covering. This is a symptom of: ,

• (A) Camphora only.    (B) Medorrhinum only.
• (C) Secale cor. only. (D) Camphora, Medorrhinum and Secale cor.

63. Find the symptom common to Alumina, Carbo an. and Cocculus ind.:

• (A) Vertigo while riding in a carriage.
• (B) Physically and mentally too weak after menses.
• (C) Aversion to open, dry, cold air.
• (D) Time passes too quickly.

64. “Toothache during pregnancy and at night” is a symptom of:

• (A) Mag. carb.   (B) Thyroidinum.
• (C) Plantago.     (D) Mag.phos.

65. The common feature of Lachesie, Lil.tig. and Thuja is :

• (A) Left sided complaints.
• (B) Anti-sycotic background.
• (C) Menses flow only when moving about.
• (D) Indifference,

66. “Consolation aggravates” is found in :

• (A) Nat.mur. only.         (B) Lilium tig. only.
• (C) Nat.mur. and Lil.tig. (D) Neither Nat. mur. nor Lil.tig,

67. “Thyroidinum” is a :

• (A) Nosode.           (B) Sarcode.
• (C) Imponderabilia. (D) Plant product.

58. The source of “Lobelia inflata” is :

• (A) Plant.    (B) Animal.
• (C) Mineral. (D) None of the above.

69. In tonsillitis, “pain extending from left side of throat to right side” indicates :

• (A) Lachesis and Sabadilla only.     (B) Lachesis and Lac. can. only.
• (C) Lac.can. and Sabadilla only.     (D) Lac.can., Lachesis and Sabadilla.

60. “Profuse sweat over entire body during waking hours” is a symptom of :

• (A) Thuja. J     (B) Sambucus nig.
• (C) China.       (D) Conium mac.

61. “Stool crumbles at the verge of anus” is a characteristic symptom of:

• (A) Saincula only.                       (B) Mag.mur. only.
• (C) Both saincula and Mag. mur. (D) Neither saincula nor Mag. mur.

62. Which of the following is not true in respect of Secale cor.:

• (A) Leucorrhoea — green, brown, offensive.
• (B) Boils – small, painful with green contents
• (C) Diarrhoea – painless, involuntary, stood discharged with great force ; anus wide open.
• (D) Gangrene – dry, senile, > from external heat.

63. Patient is very forgetful in business, but during sleep, dreams of what he had forgotten. He requires:

• (A) Selenium.   (B) Bryonia.
• (C) Lachesis.   (D) Nuxvom.

64. “According to H.C. Alien, lack of vital heat in acute disease” is a feature of:

• (A) Sepia.       (B) Ledum pal.
• (C) Calc-carb. (D) Secale cor.

66. Patient having “vertigo,on looking upwards” may need :

• (A) Spigelia.      (B) Phosphorus.
• (C) Kalmia.          (D) Silicea.

66. Cough worse from taking sweets and cold drinks may be cured by :

• (A) Drosera    . (B) Spongia.
• (C) Rumex.      (D) CoraUium R.

67. Find the odd symptom out in respect of Stannum met:

• (A) Sad, feels like crying all the time, but crying makes her worse.
• (B) Faints especially when going upstairs.
• (C) Colic > by hard pressure.
• (D) Menses too early and too profuse.

68. Which of the following drug (s) crave ‘Sympathy from others’:

• (A) Ignatia.      (B) Nat.mur.
• (C) Pulsatilla.   (D) Arnica.

69. Headache of Ars-alb. gets relieved by :

• (A) Cold application.
• (B) Warm application.
• (C) Both cold and warm application.
• (D) Neither cold nor warm application.

70. “Bed feels ao hot, she cannot lie on it” indicates :

• (A) Arnica.      (B) Bryonia.
• (C) Pyrogen.   (D) Opium.

71. Which of the following features does not belong to the pathogenesis of Medorrhinum ?

• (A) State of collapse, skin cold, yet throws of the covers
• (B) Cannot speak without weeping.
• (C) Extraordinary craving for alcohol
• (D) During dyspnoea, can exhale easily, but no power to inhale.

72. Aggravation of complaints at night, ulcers with thick whitish yellow scab, bad effects of vaccination . and teeth decay at the roots are the symptoms found in :

• (A) Mere. sol.   (B) Mezereum.
• (C) Kreosote.    (D) Syphillinum.

73. Which of the following medicines does not have craving for sweets ? Give the most correct answer:

• (A) Graphites.                                (B) Causticum.
• (C) Both Graphites and Causticum. (D) Neither Graphites not Causticum.

74. “Extraordinary craving for alcohol is found in :

• (A) Calc. ars. only.    (B) Sulphuric acid only.
• (C) Asarum only      . (D) All of these medicines.

76. Which of the following symptoms is/are common to the pathogenesis of Ammon mur., Mag.mur.and Nat. mur. :

• (A) Stool hard and crumbles at the verge of anus.
• (B) Great sensitiveness to noise.
• (C) Offensive foot sweat.
• (D) Urticaria after violent exercise.

76. ‘Unbearable pain towards the end of urination” can be cured by :

• (A) Sarsaparilla only.
• (B) Medorrhinum only.
• (C) Both Sarsaparilla and Medorrhinum.
• (D) Neither Sarsaparilla nor Medorrhinum.

77. “Cough during day time only’ is found in :

• (A) Euphrasia only.     (B) Ferrum met. only.
• (C) Nat. mur. only.      (D) Both Euphrasia and Ferrum met.

78. Which is the following is not usually a symptom of China :

• (A) Gall stone colic < bending double.
• (B) Flatulence after eating fruits.
• (C) Headache after sexual excesses.
• (D) Has no desire to live, but lacks courage to commit suicide.

79. Find the odd symptom out in respect of Ledum pal:

• (A) Affects right shoulder and left hip joint.
• (B) Foots cold to touch, but not cold subjectively to patient.
• (C) Easy spraining of ankles and feet.
• (D) Ascending type of rheumatism.

80. “Illusion of a mouse running from under the chair” is a symptom of:

• (A) Ignatia.        (B) Moschus.
• (C) Actearac   . (D) Platina.

81. Find the odd symptom out:

• (A) Haemorrhoids is the Aconite of venous capillary system.
• (B) Abrotanum is indicated for marasmus of lower limbs.
• (C) In Epilepsy indicating Cup.met., aura begins in the elbows and descends.
• (D) Agaricus affects left shoulder and right hip joint.

82. For “Humid asthma”, which of the following medicines in commonly used ?

• (A) Aconite nap.      (B) Nat.sulph.
• (C) Platina.             (D) Glonoine.

83. Which of the following features is/are not correct in respect of Dulcamara :

• (A) Urticaria < in cold air. (B) Fleshy, smooth warts.
• (C) Chyluria.                   (D) Rash before menses

84. “Menses scanty, painful and of short duration” is found in :

• (A) Euphrasia.     (B) Ferrum met.
• (C) Platina.         (D) Tuberculinum.

86. Find the odd one out in respect of Drug ~ Family relation :

• (A) Cina – Compositae.              (B) Belladonna – Ranunculaceae.
• (C) Croton tig. – Euphorbiaceae. (D) Nux vom. – Loganiaceae.

86. Arnica mont. belongs to the family :

• (A) Umbelliferae.    (B) Rubiaceae.
• (C) Compositae.    (D) Scrophularaceae.

87. The common name of ‘Aethusa cynapium” is :

• (A) Horse chestnut.    (B) Wild hop.
• (C) Witch hazel.         (D) Fool’s Parsley.

88. Find the odd pair out (Drug-Common name):

• (A) Calendula – Puffball         . (B) Baptisia – Wild indigo.
• (C) Lycopodium – Wolfs foot. (D) Nux mosch – Nutmeg.

89. Which of the following is not commonly found in the symptomatology of Tubercullinum ?

• (A) Early morning diarrhoea.
• (B) Tubercular deposits begin in the lower lobe of the right lung.
• (C) Crops of boils containing green foetid pus, appear successively no nose.
• (D) Changeable temperament.

90. The relationship between Belladonna and Dulcamara is :

• (A) Complementary. (B) Antidote.
• (C) Cordial.              (D) Inimical.

91. Which of the following statements is/are true ?

• (A) Rhus tox. belongs to the family Anacardiaceae.
• (B) GraphitesJias aversion to sweet.
• (C) Abrotanum, Antim crud. and Alumina have alternate diarrhoea and constipation.
• (D) Sepia has craving for bitter things.

92. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

• (A) All symptoms of Phosphorus are aggravated from cold and ameliorated from warmth in general except stomach complaints.
• (B) All symptoms ofArs. alb. are worse from cold and better from warmth.
• (C) All complaints of Act. racimosa are worse from warmth and better from cold in general except headache.
• (D) All ailments of Lycopodium are aggravated from warmth and better from cold.

93. Which of the following drugs belongs to carbonitrogenoid constitution ?

• (A) Nat. sulph. (B) Sulphur.
• (C) Antim. tart. (D) Syphilinum.

94. “Thuja” belongs to which of the following constitutions :

• (A) Oxygenoid.     (B) Carbonitrogenoid.
• (C) Hydrogenoid.   (D) Strumous.

96. Find the odd pair out:

• (A) Carcinosin – Cafe au lait.        (B) Bromium – Brunette.
• (C) Sepia — Sallow complexion . (D) Nat. mur. — Cachectic.

96. Find the odd pair out:

• (A) Tuberculinum – Cosmopolitan. (B) Lycopodium – Greedy.
• (C) Causticum – Selfish.               (D) Aurum met. – Melancholic.

97. Nat. mur. is suitable to the persons of which temperament ?

• (A) Fastidious.        (B) Obsessive.
• (C) Hypochondriac. (D) Hysterical.

98. Which of the following pair is not correct ?

• (A) Rheumatic – Spigelia.   (B) Tubercular – Baryta carb.
• (C) Sycotic – Alumina.       (D) Haemorrhagic – Ammonium carb.

99. Which of the following medicines cannot tolerate “tea” :

• (A) Ars. alb.    (B) Nat. carb.
• (C) Arg. nit.     (D) Nux vom.

100. Antim, crud. patients cannot tolerate :

• (A) Milk.             (B) Pastries.
• (C) Coffee.          (D) Sweet.

A series  170/2005     Maximum: 100 marks     Time : 2 hour
All questions carry equal marks.

1. Define he following :—
(a) Pharmacognosy.
(b) Active principles.
(c) Exotic plants.
(d) Prescription writing.
(e) Pharmacopoeia.

2. Write common names, parts used, class of mother tincture (old methods) and active principles of (i) Aconite Nap; (ii) China; (iii) Digitalis; (iv) Opium; and (v) Nux Vomica.

3. What is Potentisation ? Give the salient features of Centesimal and Decimal scales of potencies. Describe briefly different methods of potentisation.

4. Write short notes on

• (i) Act regulating the manufacture, storage sales and transportation of Homoeopathic remedies.
• (ii) Drug Inspector.
• (iii) Proof strength of Alcohol.
• (iv) Properties of Sugar of milk.
• (v) Drug proving.

5. What is fluxion potency ? How will you convert Calcarea Carb 3C to liquid potency?

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A series  170/2005     Maximum: 100 marks     Time : 1 hour 15 minutes
1. The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.
2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the question booklet.
3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in the address list intended for obtaining your signature and also in the seat allotted to you in the Examination Hall.
4. If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in die address list/seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY
5. The Question Booklet Serial number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha code.
6. Write the question booklet alpha code in the space provided in Part B of the answer sheet and darken the appropriate bubble.
7. The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
8. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the. candidate should check that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not have imprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.
9. Do not write or mark anything on your question booklet. A separate paper will be provided for rough work.
10. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your answers.
11. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.
12. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
13. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
14. Strict compliance of instructions is essential Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the summary disqualification of the candidate.

1.Berberin is found in :

• (A) Berberis vulgaris. (B) Argemon mexicana.
• (C) Both the above.   (D) None of the above.

2. In L.M. potency preparation the size of globules used is :

• (A) 5-Size.    (B) 20-Size.
• (C) 30-Size.  (D) 40-Size.

3. Which species of Aloe is used in Homoeopathy ?

• (A) Aloe zizibar       (B) Aloe coraco.
• (C) Aloe socotrina.  (D) Aloe vera.

4. The abbreviation for “Use if necessary” is :

• (A) A.C.     (B) S.O.S.
• (C) C.M.     (D) H.S.S.

5. The method used for separating volatile solid from non-volatile solid is called :

• (A) Evaporation.     (B) Sublimation.
• (C) Crystallization. (D) Decantation.

6. Spermaceti physical nature is :

• (A) Solid. ,        (B) Liquid.
• (C) Semisolid. (D) Vapours.

7. Centicimal potency is discussed in :

• (A) Vth Edition of Organon.    (B) VIth Edition of Organon.
• (C) Materia medica pura.       (D) Chronic diseases.

8. Metalic hard and stony hard drugs are triturated for Ix or 1c for^

• (A) One hour.     (B) Two hours.
• (C) Three hours. (D) Four hours.

9. Class V of old class deals with :

• (A) Mother tinctures.     (B) Alcoholic solutions.
• (C) Aqueous solutions. (D) Mother solutions.

10. Mullen oil is :

• (A) An oil extract.      (B) Alcoholic extract,
• (C) Aqueous extract   (D) Glycerin extract.

11. Inspissated Juice is used from :

• (A) Arnica.   (B) Grindalia.
• (C) Aloe.      (D) Guaicum.

12. Binding material used for the tabloid preparation is :

• (A) Starch.    (B) Sugar.
• (C) Glycerin. (D) Calcium powder.

13. Globules are manufactured in a machine called

• (A) Rotary.         (B) Evaporator.
• (C) Coating pan. (D) Granulator.

14. 1 grain powder is equal to :

• (A) 65 mg.      (B) 80 mg.
• (C) 90 mg.      (D) 100 mg.

16. 1 ml of alcohol can give :

• (A) 46 drops.     (B) 17 drops.
• (C) 20 drops.     (D) 35 drops.

16. Homoeopathic drugs prepared by using other systems drug are called

• (A) Isopathic drugs.        (B) Tautopathic drugs.
• (C) Homoeopathic drugs. (D) Allopathic drugs.

17. Sepia is prepared by using the method of

• (A) Mother tincture.     (B) Alcoholic solution.
• (C) Aqueous solution.  (D) Trituration.

18. The latest Bi-nominal system of nomenclature is introduced by :

• (A) Linneus.           (B) Bentham and Hooker.
• (C) TakhatJ’an      . (D) Gibs.

19. The earliest Homoeopathic Pharmaceutical Industry established in Philadelphia U.S.A. is :

• (A) Boeric&Tafle.     (B) Boiron.
• (C) Madus.             (D) Willmar Scwabe.

20. Manufacture ofHomoeo drugs dealt in .sub rule

• (A) 85.    (B) 92.
• (C) 67.    (D) 71.

21. Which type of solutions throwout crystals

• (A) Perfect solutions.             (B) Unsaturated solutions.
• (C) Over saturated solutions  (D) Aqueous solutions.

22. Loganiaceae family members are

• (A) Nux vomica.          (B) Ignatia amara.
• (C) Both of the above. (D) None of the above.

23. Cephalandra and Bryonia belongs to

• (A) Compositae.     (B) Solanaceae.
• (C) Cucurbitaceae. (D) Asteraceae.

24. In Anacardium occidentale the part used is

• (A) Seeds.         (B) Kernel.
• (C) Fruit.            (D) Juice of Epicarp.

25. In which year the first Pharmacopoeia is published in Homeo :

• (A) 1790.     (B) 17S6.
• (C) 1805. . ‘ (D) 1825.

26. A substance which can cure a disease is called

• (A) Drug.       (B) Medicine.
• (C) Remedy.  (D) All the three.

27.A mother tincture is

• (A) An alcoholic solution.   (B) Alcoholic extract.
• (C) Dilution of the drug.      (D) Aquo alcoholic extract.

28.Glonoin is the drug prepared from

• (A) Glycerin trichloride.   (B) Nitroglycerin.
• (C) Triglycerides.           (D) Benzene.

29.Chemical formula of camphor is

• (A) C10H140.       (B) C10H16O
• (C) C10H10N4O    (D) C3H5N3O9

30.Graminaceae members are

• (A) Avena eativa.  (B) Cynodon dactylon.
• (C) Both the two.  (D) None of the above.

31.Ficus relegios belongs to

• (A) Meliaceae.   (B) Moraceae.
• (C) Urticaceae.  (D) Myrtaceae.

32.Cinnaberis is a:

• (A) Zinc compound.      (B) Lead compound.
• (C) Copper compound.  (D) Mercuric compound.

33.  % of the dispensing alcohol is :

• (A) 95%.     (B) 88%.
• (C) 75%.     (D) 91%.

34.60. O.P. alcohol % is :

• (A) 94.5 %.  (B) 91.4%.
• (C) 60%.      (D) 57%.t

35.Arbur vita is the common name for

• (A) Abrotenum.                     (B) Abrus precatorious.
• (C) Thalaspi bursa pastoris.   (D) Thuja.

36. Lachaais male snake is :

• (A) Larger than the female.     (B) Equal is size.
• (C) Smaller than the female.   (D) All possible.

37. Morbid products with which drugs are prepared are called

• (A) Sarcodes.     (B) Nosodes.
• (C) Medicines.    (D) Remedies.

38. Posology is the Doctrine of:

• (A) Medicine. (B) Potency.
• (C) Dosage. (D) None.

.39. What are the sources of Homoeopathic Pharmacy

• (A) Materia Medica Pura  . (B) Organon of Medicine.
• (C) Chronic diseases.        (D) All the above.

40. When a medicine exhibit affinity for a particular system or organ in the body it is called :

• (A) Polychrest remedy.    (B) Indicated medicine.
• (C) Organopathic drug.     (D) Proved drug.

41. In which aporism of Organon VI edition 50 millicimal potencies are discussed.

• (A) 207.    (B) 250.
• (C) 270.    (D) 170.

42. How many scales use triturations

• (A) One.       (B) Two.
• (C) Three. ..  (D) All.

43. To get 1 X trituration the drug and sugar of milk are taken in a ratio of:

• (A) 1:9. .    (B) 1:99.
• (C) 1: 4.     (D) 1: 2.

44. Can the solid trituration be converted in to liquid dilution at:

• (A) 6X.      (B) 8X.
• (C) 10 X  . (D) All the above.

46. Succussion is the process used for potentising :

• (A) Solid drugs.      (B) Insoluble drugs.
• (C) Soluble drugs. (D) All the above.

46. What is the drug power of mother tinctures in Class III ?

• (A) 1/2.     (B) 1/6.
• (C) 1/10     (D) 1/100.

47. According to old method most juicy plants belong to ?

• (A) Class I.    (B) Class II.
• (C) Class III.   (D) Class IV.

48. The fundamental rule for the Class III Q is discussed in Materia Medica Pura under :

• (A) Bryonia.   (B) Cactus g.
• (C) Silicia.     (D) Squilla.

49. What is the drug strength of Sulphur mother tincture ?

• (A) 1/2.        (B) 1/10.
• (C) 1/1000.  (D) 1/5000.

50. What is the drug strength of Cactus grandiflora Q ?

• (A) 1/10.     (B) 1/20.
• (C) 1/2.       (D) 1/100.

61. Calcaria carb is prepared from which layer of oister shell:

• (A) Inner layer.    (B) Middle layer.
• (C) Outer layer.    (D) All of them.

62. Desicator is used for removing the :

• (A) Dust.       (B) Moisture.
• (C) Acidity. . (D) None of them.

53. Which part of the plant Bryonia is used for preparing Q ?

• (A) Roots.    (B) Bark.
• (C) Stem.    (D) Leaves.

64. Rhododendron is prepared from

• (A) Leaves.                         (B) Flowers
• (C) Flower buds and leaves. (D) Fruit.

66. Lac filinum is the milk obtained from a healthy :

• (A) Dog.      (B) Cat.
• (C) Cow.      (D) Horse.

56. For preservation of Flouric acid the glass bottles which are used are

• (A) Ambar colour. (B) White colour.
• (C) Blue colour.    (D) Gutta purcha.

67. What is the molecular weight of water ?

• (A) 16.    (B) 18.
• (C) 20.    (D) 22.

68. When a boiled solution of sugar of milk containing starch is treated with solution of lodin will turn it:

• (A) Red.             (B) Brown.
• (C) White curdy. (D) Blue.

69. If chlorides to be tested the silver nitrate is added to give a

• (A) Green P.P.T.             (B) Red P.P.T.
• (C) White curdy P.P.T    (D) Brown P.P.T.

60. What is the formula of Ethanol ?

• (A) CH3CHO.      (B) C2H5OH.
• (C) C3H7Oh.       (D) CH2CH3COOH.

61. Boiling point of Ethyl alcohol is :

• (A) 78.5 °C.      (B) 90.5 °C.
• (C) 85.2 °C.      (D) 100 °C.

62. Glycerin vehicle is obtained from :

• (C) Mineral source.     (D) All the three.
• (A) Animal source.     (B) Plant source.

63. Venums are preserved in :

• (A) Alcohol.     (B) Water.
• (C) Glycerin.    (D) Acetone.

64. The fundamental principle for the dose should be :

• (A) Singleness.    (B) Simpleness.
• (C) Similarity.       (D) All the three.

66. Volume II of  HPI contain the drug monographs ranging :

• (A) 108.    (B) 115.
• (C) 100.     (D) 170.

66. Linaments are prepared from

• (A) Alcohol.       (B) Distilled water.
• (C) Olive oil.     (D) Rosmary oil.

67. Which part is called the body of the prescription ?

• (A) Superscription.     (B) Subscription.
• (C) Inscription.           (D) Signa.

68. Legally important part of the Signa is :

• (A) Signature of the physician.   (B) Registration No.
• (C) Date.                                  (D) All the three.

69. In old classification triturations are discussed in :

• (A) Class Vl1    (B) Class VIII.
• (C) Class IX.     (D) All the three.

70. Drugs can be standardise by :

• (A) Physical assaying.     (B) Chemical assaying.
• (C) Biological assaying.    (D) All the three.

71. First Homoeopathic Pharmacy is compiled by :

• (A) Close.     (B) Caspar!.
• (C) Herring.   (D) Staff

72. Placebo is discussed in the Organon in article

• (A) 270.           (B) 267.
• (C) 281.           (D) 247

73. Ethanol is chemically

• (A) Monohydric.  (B) Dihydric.
• (C) Trihydric.      (D) Tetrahydric.

74. Lachasia is introduced by

• (A) Kent.     (B) Boening Hausen.
• (C) Herring. (D) Lippe.

75. Petroselinum belongs to

• (A) Mineral source.    (B) Plant source.
• (C) Chemical source. (D) Animal source.

76. All Mother tinctures are standardized at 1/10 D.S. by

• (A) Hahnemann.       (B) New method.
• (C) Pharmacopoeia. (D) Organon of medicine.

77. Club moss is the common name for

• (A) Thuja.            (B) Fucus.
• (C) Lycopodium.  (D) Arnica.

78. M. Bhattacharya & Co. Pharmacopoeia is published in

• (A) 1900.        (B) 1892.
• (C) 1920.        (D) 1972.

79. Purification of commercial Lactose is developed by

• (A) Staff.       (B) Coolen.
• (C) Lavoishe. (D) Dunham.

80. To separate the solute from solvent the method used is

• (A) Filtration.       (B) Distillation.
• (C) Sublimation    (D) Decantation.

81. In class IX of old method the drug and vehicle ratio is :

• (A) 1:9.     (B) 1:99.
• (C) 2:9.      (D) 1:4.

82. Digitalis belongs to the family .

• (A) Compositae.   (B) Scrophluraceae
• (C) Solanaceae.   (D) Rananculaceae.

83. Bufo rana is the drug prepared from

• (A) Toad.     (B) Snail. .
• (C) Snake.   (D) Lizard.

84. Santonine is the active principle of:

• (A) Belladonna.   (B) Satalum album.
• (C) Cina.            (D) Pulsatilla.

85. Rule 67 of Sale of Homoeo drugs the duration of licence is discussed in :

• (A) 67—C.   (B) 67—D.
• (C) 67—E.      (D) 67—B.

86. Route of administration of drugs is dealt in

• (A) Pharmacognosy.   (B) Pharmacology.
• (C) Pharmaconomy.    (D) Pharmacoproxy.

87. One who conduct proving experiment is called

• (A) Prover. .           (B) Ideal prover.
• (C) Master prover.  (D) None of the above.

88. Temporary hardness of water is because of the presence of:

• (A) Sulphates      .(B) Phosphates.
• (C) Carbonates.   (D) Chlorides.

89. Decimal potencies are explained in

• (A) V edition of Organon.(B) VI edition of Organon.
• (C) Both the two.            (D) None of the above.

90. Night blooming Cereus is the name for=

• (A) Helianthus anus.    (B) Cactus g.
• (C) Claendula              (D) ChamomiUa.

91. Passion flower of Passiflora incamata the part used is

• (A) Leaves        (B) Roots.
• (C) Flowers.     (D) Fruits.

92. Skunk is the material obtained from

• (A) Musk deer.                  (B) Toad skin.
• (C) Anal gland of wild cat.   (D) Snake venum.

93. Propaintriol ia the chemical name of

• (A) Methyl alcohol   .(B) Ethyl alcohol.
• (C) Glycerin         .(D) Benzene.

94. Mercurialifl perinnis belongs to

• (A) Animal kingdom.      (B) Mineral kingdom.
• (C) Plant kingdom.        (D) Chemicals.

96. I.H.P. Vol I contain Monographs of:

• (A) 170 Drugs.     (B) 210 Drugs.
• (C) 118 Drugs.     (D) 180 Drugs.

96. Extraction of Mother tinctures from dry drug materials is carried out by the process of:

• (A) Filteration.    (B) Sublimation.
• (C) Maceration.  (D) Percolation.

97. Karl Fisher method of moisture estimation is otherwise known as :

• (A) Gravimetric method     (B) Tolune method.
• (C) Volumetric method.     (D) Titrimetric method.

98. Imponderable drugs are introduced by Hahnemann in Organon of medicine in the article

• (A) 274    . (B) 267.
• (C) 282.     (D) 286.

99. Homoeopathic doses are synonymous for

• (A) Infmitissimal doses.    (B) Microdoses.
• (C) Minimal doses.           (D) Optimal doses.

100. Common name of Andrographis paniculata is :

• (A) Babchi.       (B) Somraj.
• (C) Kalmegh.  . (D). Kurchi.

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Question Paper of  Kerala Public Service Commission Tutor in Organon of Medicine Examinations 1991
Maximum:100marks Time : 2 hrs only

Directions:
(1) Answer all the questions.
(2) Write the answers in English
(3) Pay attention to the words italicized in each question and answer to the point,   avoiding unnecessary verbage.
(4) Number at the right-hand margins indicate marks for the question and relate the answer to the marks and time available

1. Answer the following in minimum words/sentences :—

• (a) Mention three top-most objectives, a young man could hope to achieve through a career in Homoeopathy, in their order of priority  3 
• (b) What are three important scopes of Homoeopathy as a distinct system of 3 Medicine, could offer.
• (c) What do you think of a person who lived a full span of life and could look 3 back and say “I have not lived in vain”.
• (d) What do you think of the various discoveries that sways medical opinion 2 and therapeutic trends, from time to time in the long history of Medicine ?
• (e) Name the three different classes of medical men, classified on the basis of 4 mental trends that existed in the whole history of Medicine. Describe very briefly each and offer your critical comments. 

2.(a) Mention the two different methods of logic. 2

• (b) What method of logic is  2
• (i) Individualization ; and
• (ii) Generalization?
• (c) What method of logic is  3
• (i) Analysis; and
• (ii) Synthesis?
• (d) What is science and what are scientific methods? 2

3.(a) What is the difficulty in adopting scientific methods, that are successfully adopted in other fields of inquiry, in the study of man and his disease?  4

• (b) “Nature” and every natural phenomenon is governed by certain natural principles.” Give your short comments.
• (c Which of the following two statements appeals to you? Give reasons:  4

(i) “Reality” is independent of the observer.
(ii) “Reality” is the one perceived by the unprejudiced observer.

4. (a) Illness is a reality though the cause always remains subtle, perceived at best as a concept and not concretely. Give your brief comments.  3

• (b) What are the three knowledge’s one must possess, if he has to practice medicine successfully?  3
• (c) A simple, most practical way of comprehending life, for the purpose of a  physician, is to know it as a dynamics of sensing, discriminating and responding to stimuli. Write briefly your views on the above statement. 4
• (d) Write down briefly about holistic approach in the science of Therapeutics. 4

5.(a) What are the first three steps followed by Hahnemann for establishing Homoeopathic Therapeutic law. 3

• (b) Define Homoeopathic law of nature and explain briefly the two main axioms by which the law is operational.4
• (c) Give reasons for stating that human body appears to be affected in its health by medicines more powerfully than by natural morbid stimulii.4
• (d) Diseases (that does not come within the province of manual surgery) are caused in a dynamic way and not by any physical or chemical means. 3

6. (a) What is the basis on which Hahnemann classified the chief modes of treatment into two? 2
(b) Explain briefly Antipathy under the following heads   5

• (i) Its principle.
• (ii) Its practice.
• (iii) Its result.

(iv) Its advantages and disadvantages.

• (c) Isopathy is in reality a misunderstanding of Homoeopathy. Give your comments.  2
• (d) Define primary action of drugs, and state how vital force conduct itself during primary action.  2
• (e) How will you differentiate between alternating paroxysm of primary action and  secondary counter-action of a drug, when the former is occurring in a different prover or subsequent proving?  3

7.(a) What is the basis of Hahnemann’s classification of diseases into Acute and Chronic?  2

• (b) Discuss briefly the role of various environmental factors in the causation of  natural disease.  2
• (c) The only thing that the physician has to take note of in every case of disease is . What? State the reasons briefly. 2
• (d) Differentiate between Idiosyncracy and Allergy         . 4

8.(a) What does cures natural disease? Give reasons in not more than 5 lines.   2

• (b) Mention clearly the different types of mental diseases as classified by Hahnemann.  4
• (c) Mention briefly Hahnemann’s opinions on the course, prognosis and  treatment of Intermittent fevers which are endemic in marshy districts .  4

Question Paper of  Kerala Public Service Commission Tutor in Organon of Medicine Examinations 2005
C series  170/2005     Maximum: 100 marks     Time : 1 hour 15 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1.The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.
2.The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the question booklet.
3.The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in the address list intended for obtaining your signature and also in the seat allotted to you in the Examination Hall.
4.If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in die address list/seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY
5.The Question Booklet Serial number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha code.
6.Write the question booklet alpha code in the space provided in Part B of the answer sheet and darken the appropriate bubble.
7.The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
8.Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the. candidate should check that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not have imprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.
9.Do not write or mark anything on your question booklet. A separate paper will be provided for rough work.
10.Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your answers.
11.Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.
12.Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
13.No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
14.Strict compliance of instructions is essential Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the summary disqualification of the candidate.

Maximum: 100 marks        Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

1. Cure is effected by :

• (A) Primary action of similar medicine.
• (B) Secondary action of similar medicine.
• (C) Both primary and secondary action of similar medicine.
• (D) Conjoint action.

2. Surrogates are :

• (A) Homoepathic medicines. (B) Substitutive medicines.
• (C) Allopathic medicines. (D) Antipathic medicines.

3. Artificial chronic diseases are :

• (A) Drug diseases. (B) Drug plus miasmatic diseases.
• (C) Miasmatic diseases. (D) None of the above.

4. Psora is the cause of;

• (A) Non-veneral chronic diseases.
• (B) Veneral chronic diseases.
• (C) Both non-veneral and venereal chronic diseases.
• (D) All acute and chronic diseases.

5. Primary action of medicine is :

• (A) Actions of both medicine and vital principle.
• (B) Action of medicine.
• (C) Action of vital principle.
• (D) Reaction of vital principle.

6. Symptomatic treatment is :

• (A) Antipathic treatment. (B) Allopathic treatment.
• (C) Isopathic treatment. (D) Homoepathic treatment.

7. A medicine may be called homoeopathic, if it is :

• (A) Included in homeopathic Materia Medica.
• (B) Used in potensied form.
• (C) Prepared according to homoeopathic pharmacopoeia.
• (D) Based on the basis of simila.

8. Vaccination against small pox was an imitation of:

• (A) Homoepathy. (B) Antipathy.
• (C) Isopathy. (D) Allopathy. 

9. Two dissimilar diseases, when both are of chronic character and of equal strength meeting together in the human being will cause :

• (A) New one will be repelled by old one.
• (B) Old one to be suspended by new one.
• (C) A complex disease.
• (D) Neutralisation by each other

10. ‘The introduction’ to Organon of Medicine was introduced in the book for the first in :

• (A) The 1st Edition. (B) 2nd Edition.
• (C) 3rd Edition. (D) 4th Edition.

11. Totality of symptoms includes :

• (A) Only signs. (B) Only symptoms.
• (C) Both signs and symptoms. (D) Only keynot symptoms.

12. The doctrine of drug dynamisation of the Organon of medicine was first introduced by Hahnemam in its :

• (A) 1st Edition. (B) 2nd Edition.
• (C) 3rd Edition. (D) 5th Edition.

13. A homoeopath may use medicines :

• (A) Only homoeopathic. (B) Both homoeopathic and antipathic.
• (C) Homoeopathic and isopathic. (D) All Homoeopathic and isopathic.

14. Hahnemann wrote in :

• (A) Only german language. (B) Both German and Latin.
• (C) German, English and Latin. (D) German, French and Latin.

15. Psora is the cause of:

• (A) All diseases, acute and chronic.
• (B) Only chronic diseases.
• (C) Only non-venereal chronic diseases.
• (D) Only veneral diseases.

16. The phrase “Aude sapere’ was coined by :

• (A) Hippocrates. (B) Horace.
• (C) Hahnemann. (D) Homer.

17. Hahnemann dies in the city of:

• (A) Meissen. (B) Leipzig.
• (C) Paris. (D) Koethen.

18. Surrogates are :

• (A) Allopathic medicines. (B) Antipathic medicines.
• (C) Homoeopathic medicines. (D) Substitutive medicines.

19. Hahnemann mentioned about the law of similia for the first time in :

• (A) 1796 BC. (B) I790AD.
• (C) 1796 AD. (D) 1805 BC.
• (E) 1810 AD.

20. The ‘chronic Diseases’ contains :

• (A) Only provings of drugs.
• (B) Provings of drugs and nature of chronic diseses.
• (C) Proving, nature of chronic diseases and their effective treatment.
• (D) Nature of chronic diseases.

21. The fourth edition of Hahnemann’s Organon contained sections numbering

• (A) 318. (B) 259.
• (C) 315. (D) 292.

22. Pain in the head is a :

• (A) Symptom. (B) Sign.
• (C) Characteristic. (D) Characteristic sign.

23. Tolle causm means :

• (A) Remove the diseases. (B) Remove the maintaining cause.
• (C) Remove the cause. (D) Remove the fundmental cause.

24. Among all chronic diseases the most deplorable, incurable diseases are :

• (A) Pseudo-chronic diseases. (B) Artifical chronic diseases.
• (C) True natural chronic diseases. (D) None of the above.

26. Hahnemannian concept of general symptoms refers to :

• (A) Common symptoms. (B) Uncommon symptoms.
• (C) Characteristic symptoms. (D) None of the above.

26. Kentian concept of general symptoms refers to :

• (A) Common symptoms.
• (B) Uncommon symptoms.
• (C) Symptoms related to the patient as a whole, which may be common or uncommon.
• (D) None of the above,

27. In chronic case the most minute peculiarities must be attened because they :

• (A) are most characteristic.
• (B) Help in the choice of the remedy.
• (C) Have connection with principal remedy.
• (D) All of the above.

28. Homeopathic specific remedy relates to :

• (A) A medicine related to a particular disease.
• (B) A medicine in relation to a particular person.
• (C) A medicine related to a particular group of characteristic symptoms.
• (D) A medicine related to a particular group of symptoms.

29. Theoretic medicine is a :

• (A) Substitutive medicine.
• (B) A Palliative medicine-
• (C) Concept in relation to the development of diseases and their treatment.
• (D) A curative medicine.

30. In sec. 110 of Ogranon of Medicine (5th Edition) Dr. Hahnemann criticized the concept of “Doctrine of Signature” :

• (A) Yes.                                                   (B) No
• (C) No reference of this concept. (D) None of the above.

31. According to Stuart Close constitution of an individual develops as a result of the following

• (A) Interaction between hereditary and environment factors.
• (B) Interaction between simple substance and medicine.
• (C) Interaction between simple substance and disease.
• (D) None of the above.

32. Totality of symptoms :

• (A) Quantitative.                                 (B) Quantitative.
• (C) Quantitative and qualitative. (D) Not related to either quantity or quality.

33. In section 153 of Organon of Medicine (5th edition) Hahnemann actually evaluated the symptoms :

• (A) Yes.
• (B) No.
• (C) This section is not at all related to symptom classification.
• (D) This section is related to miasmatic diagnosis.

34. The objective(s) of homoeopathic case taking is (are):

• (A) Diagnosis of the disease. (B) Individualization.
• (C) Anamnesis. (D) All of the above.

35. The importance of diagnosis of disease in the selection of homoepathic is as follows :

• (A) Nothing. (B) Least. .
• (C) Highly. (D) None of the above.

36. Homoeopathic aggravation is due to :

• (A) Primary action of medicine. (B) Secondary action of medicine.
• (C) Large doses of medicine. (D) Incorrect selection of medicine.

37.. 50 millisimal scale is described in which edition of Organon of medicine ?

• (A) 1st edition. (B) 2nd edition.
• (C) Vth edition. (D) VIth edition.

38. Hering’s law of cure is depicted in Kent’s philosophy under :

• (A) 8th observation. (B) 9th observation.
• (C) 10th observation. (D) llth observation.

39. The interpretation of Kent’s twelth observation states that:

• (A) The medicine must be let alone.
• (B) The medicine must be antidoted at once.
• (C) The medicine was only a superficial remedy
• (D) The medicine has been too late.

40. What happens when the two dissimilar diseases of different strenght meet in a living organism ^

• (A) The weaker one will suspend the stronger one.
• (B) Both of them will co-exist with their manifestations.
• (C) They will be curing each other.
• (D) The stronger one will suspend the weaker one.

41. The highest ideal of cure is :

• (A) Slow, gentle and permanent restroation of health.
• (B) Slow, vigorous and temporary restoration of health.
• (C) Rapid, gentle and temporary restoration of health.
• (D) Rapid, gentle and permanent restoration of health.

(42.) “The removal of the totality of symptoms means the removal of the disease.” This concept is reflected in :

• (A) Aphorism 10 of Organon of Medicine.
• (B) Aphorism 15 of Organon of Medicine.
• (C) Aphorism 17 of Organon of Medicine.
• (D) Aphorism 20 of Organon of Medicine.

43. When is the need to repeat the first prescription?

• (A) When there is aggravation of the existing symptoms.
• (B) When there is presence of additional new symptoms.
• (C) When there is amelioration of the symptoms.
• (D) When amelioration comes to a standstill.

 44. Which of the following miasms has the symptom-desire for cold food ?

• (A) Psora. (B) Sycosis.
• (C) Syphilis. (D) Tubercular.

46. In case of homoeopathic aggravation, we should :

• (A) Antidote the medicine.
• (B) Wait and Watch.
• (C) Prescribe a complementary medicine.
• (D) Repeat the medicine immediately in lower potency.

46. The modus operand! of homoeopathic medicines is explained in Organon of Medicine, in Aphorism :

• (A) 26. (B) 25.
• (C) 29. (D) 39.

47.  Which one of the following does not belong to “Causa Occasionalis” ?

• (A) Strong smelling flowers cause syncope.
• (B) Imperforte anus of infants.
• (C) Dyspnoea from dust exposure.
• (D) Pthisis after chest injury.

48. Mental diseases are :

• (A) Psoric in origin-
• (B) Psudo-psoric in origin.
• (C) Syphilitic in origin.
• (D) Psudo syphilitic in origin.

49. According to __, “sycosis is contagious disease which results from suppression of chronic gonorrhoea.

• (A) Hahnemann. (B) J.T.Kenfe.
• (C) J.H.Allen. (D) Stuart Close.

50. Accessory miasm is related to :

• (A) Rabies vaccine. (B) Cowpox vaccine.
• (C) Smallpox vaccine. (D) Measles vaccine.

51. The commonest precancerous lesion in the mouth is :

• (A) Leukoplakia. (B) Submucous fibrosis.
• (C) Bowens disease. (D) Syphilitic glossitis.

52. Following conditions are associated with carpal tunnel syndrome except:

• (A) Myxedema. (B) Pregnancy.
• (C) Acromegaly. (D) Poliomyelitis.

63. The following joints are usually involved in Ankylosing spondylitis except:

• (A) Sacroilliac. (B) Wrist.
• (C) Hip. (D) Cervical spine.

54. Secondaries in neck appear when malignancy is present in the following sites except:

• (A) Vocal cords. (B) Abdomen.
• (C) Pyriform fossa. (D) Nasopharynx.

55. Most common site of metastasis of lung cancer is :

• (A) Brain. (B) Adrenals.
• (C) Liver. (D) Bone.

66. Which of the following indicates a positive tuberculin test ?

• (A) 10 mm erythema at 48 hrs. (B) 10 mm induration at 48 hrs.
• (C) 5 mm induration within 1 hour. (D) 10 mm erythema + lymphoadenopathy.

67. Which of the following parasite is often associated with acute appendicitis : .

• (A) Trichuris tritura. (B) Enterobius.
• (C) Strongyloides. (D) Ascariasis.

68. Very high level of ESR is found in :

• (A) Leukemia. (B) Multiple myeloma.
• (C) Tuberculosis. (D) Amyloidosis.

69. Most common site for avascular necrosis of bone is :

• (A) Head of femur. (B) Scapular neck.
• (C) Lower and humerus. (D) Clavicle.

60. Deficiency of Thiamine causes :

• (A) BeriBeri. (B) Scurvy.
• (C) Night blindness. (D) Rickets.

61. According to Aristotle human soul is :

• (A) Nutritive. (B) Impulsive.
• (C) Rational. (D) None of above.

62. Marasmus of Abrotanum is charcterized by :

• (A) Marasmus of neck. (B) Marasmus of lower extremities.
• (C) Marasmus of breast. (D) Marasmus of whole body.

63. Which of the following medicines should be prescribed to a female—21 years of age, newly married has burning micturition and has to sit for a long period to pass urine with marked irritation at the genitals ?

• (A) Cantharis, (B) Staphisagria.
• (C) Nitric acid. (D) Sulphur.

64. Inordinate craving for meat in children of tuberculosis parentage is characteristic of:

• (A) Magnesia carb. (B) Magnesia mur.
• (C) Antimcrud. (D) Sulphur.

65. Traumatic chronic neuritis, neuralgia of stump after amputation, burning and stinging pains are characteristics of:

• (A) Ledum Pal. (B) Staphisagria.
• (C) Allium Cepa. (D) Hypericum.

66. Which one of the following medicines is indicated for the symptom : suicidal tendency on seeing knife or blood ?

• (A) Arsenic Alb. r (B) Aurum Met.
• (C) Natrum Sulph. (D) Alumina.

67. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

• (A) Agaricus affects left shoulder and right hip joint.
• (B) Hamamelis is the aconite of arterial capillary system.
• (C) Abrotanum can cure marasmus of lower limbs. v
• (D) In epilepsy indicating cuprum met., aura begins in the knees and ascends.

68. Which one of the following does not belong to the pathogenesis of Mezreum ?

• (A) Aggravation of complaints at night.
• (B) Ulcers with thick whitish yellow scabs.
• (C) Teeth decay especially at the edges of the gums.
• (D) Bad effects of vaccination.

69. Profuse perspiration after acute disease with relief of all sufferings is the peculiar symptom of;

• (A) Mercuris. (B) Psorium.
• (C) Sulphur. (D) Syphilium.

70. Great indignation about things done by oneself or by others is a characteristic of:

• (A) Aurum met. (B) Staphisagria.
• (C) Lycopodium. (D) Gelsimium.

71. Which one of the following drugs is required by a girl in her teens with nervous exhaustion with suffers from incessant and violent fidgety feeling in feet or lower extremities and moves then constantly ?

• (A) Helleborus. (B) Kali Bromatum.
• (C) Sulphur. (D) Zincum MetaUicum.

72. Which one of the following is not a symptom of Euphrasia in respect of menses ?

• (A) Early.                    (B) Scanty.
• (C) Short-duration. (D) Painful.

73. A child suffering from acute tonsillitis is presented with the symptoms of throat pain associated with pain in ears which got aggravated by Warm drinks and better by cold drinks. Which one of the following is the likely remedy ?

• (A) Mere. Sol. (B) Belladonna.
• (C) Arsenic album. (D) Phytolacca.

74. Which one of the following is the correct order that matches with the sequential order of ‘amelioration from coffee’, ‘aggravation from coffee’ and ‘desire for coffee’ ?

• (A) Ignatia, Angustura, Chamomilla.
• (B) Angustura, Ignatia, Chamomilla.
• (C) Ignatia, Chamomilla, Angustura.
• (D) Chamomilla, Ignatia, Angustura.

75. ‘Delusion’ is explained as false :

• (A) Will. (B) Belief.
• (C) Dream. (D) Memory.

76. Which one of the following is not used for grading or evaluation of the medicins in Kent’s Repertory

• (A) Recording during proving. (B) Confirmation by reproving.
• (C) Verification upon the sick. (D) Research on animals.

77. In which chapter of the Kent’s Repertory is the ruble affectionate found ?

• (A) Generalities. (B) Head.
• (C) Mind. (D) Chest.

78. In which chapter of the Kent’s Repertory is the sensation of formication in anus found ?

• (A) Stool. (B) Rectum.
• (C) Stomach. (D) Generalities.

79. Consider the following statements :

• (1) Hahnemann’s materia medica pura as left by him had six volumes.
• (2) Synthetic repertroy by barthel and Klunker has three volumes.
• (3) Allen’s Encyclopaedia has 12 volumes.
• (4) Bering’s guiding symptoms has 10 volumes.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

• (A) 1,2, 3 and 4. (B) I and 4.
• (C) 2, 3 and 4. (D) 1, 2 and 3.

80. In which chapter of the Kent’s Repertory is rubric indolence found ?

• (A) Head. (B) Generalities.
• (C) Mind. (D) Sleep.

81. In which chapter of the Kent’s Repertory is bloody spitting found ?

• (A) Respiration. (B) Expectoration.
• (C) Chest.               (D) Cough.

82. In which chapter of the Kent’ Repertory, the rubrics phimosis and paraphimosis are found ?

• (A) Mind.                  (B) Skin.
• (C) Generatilities. (D) Genitalia.

83. Which one of the following is the correct remedy forcaries of Fibula ?

• (A) Acid fluoricum. (B) Silicea. •
• (C) Hepersulph.         (D) Calendula.

84. Kent’s Repertory is a type of:

• (A) Synthetic Repertory. (B) General Repertory.
• (C) Regional Repertory. (D) Particular Repertory.

85. Von Boenninghausen generalised the symptoms by adopting :

• (1) The doctrine of analogy.
• (2) The general symptoms.
• (3) The conceptual image of the patient.
• (4) The common symptoms.

86. Consider the following statements :

• (1) 10 minims of tincture and 90 minims of alcohol give 1st centesimal potency.
• (2) 6 minims of tincture and 99 minims of dilute alcohol, the drug power tincture beingm1/6 give 1st centesimal potency.
• (3) Preparation of mother tincture consists in three steps viz. estimation of plant moisture content, maceration and percolation.
• (4) Drugs like bufo rana, Murex, Apis, Phytolacca, Helleborus and Naja, all belong to animal kingdom.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

• (A) land 3. (B) 3 only.
• (C) 2 and 4. (D) 4 only>

87. Which of the symptoms given below is/are helpful for confirmation of phosphorus as the remedy ?

• (1) Anxiety for health of others. 
• (2) Desires salt, ice-cream, chocolates.
• (3) Fair, fat, flabby. / (4) Sleeps on right side.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

• (A) 3 only. (B) 1. 2 and 4.
• (C) 1 and 3. (D) None.

88. In a suspected case of prostatic enlargement, which one of the following procedure is likely to confirm the diagnosis

• (A) Urine examination. (B) Rectal examination.
• (C) Ultrasonography. (D) Measuring water intake and output of urine.

89. What is the most common mode of transmission of leprosy ?

• (A) Skin to skin contact. (B) Insect vectors.
• (C) Through fomites. (D) Droplet infection.

90. Koplik’s spots are pathognomonic of:

• (A) Chicken pox. (B) Dengue.
• (C) Measles. (D) Addison’s disease.

91. Similar diseases can :

• (A) Co-exist in patient. (B) Cannot co-exist in a patient.
• (C) Can palliate a disease. (D) Can suppress a disease.

92. Vital force exists in :

• (A) The curative medicine.
• (B) The patient.
• (C) Both in medicine and the patient.
• (D) The palliative medicine.

93. A second disease when dissimilar to the first disease :

• (A) Always cures. (B) Never cures.
• (C) Always Palliates. (D) Never Palliates.

94. Organon of medicine was first published in :

• (A) 1810 A.D. (B) 1710 A.D.
• (C) 1810 B.C. (D) 1710 B.C.

96. Hahnemann :

• (A) Invented Law of similars. (B) Discovered Law of similars.
• (C) Invented Law of contraria. (D) None of the above.

96. Chronic diseases have :

• (A) Very rapid course and very abrupt onset.
• (B) Very lingering course and very slow onset.
• (C) Very rapid course and very slow onset.
• (D) Very lingering course and very abrupt onset.

97. Nature’s law of cure is found in :

• (A) Allopathy. (B) Homoeopathy.
• (C) Isopathy. (D) Enantiopathy.

98. A homoeopathician may use medicines according to the :

• (A) Law of similia only.
• (B) Laws of similia and contrariis.
• (C) Laws of similia, contrariia and dissimilia.
• (D) Laws of similia and isopathia.

99. The phrase “Aude Sapere” was coined by :

• (A) Hippocrates. (B) Hahnemann.
• (C) Horace             (D) Hufeland.

100. In the western recorded history the law of simila was first mentioned by :

• (A) Hahnemann. (B) Hippocrates.
• (C) Galen.               (D) Aristotle.

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Re exam Question Paper of  Kerala Public Service Commission Tutor in Organon of Medicine Examinations 2005.
Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.

1. Of the below which spreads through the lymphatics?

(A) Leiomyoma (B) Carcinoma
(C) Sarcoma (D) Rhabdomyoma

2. Of the below which is the Myringitis granulosa?

• (A) Profuse mucoid discharge with abnormal hearing
• (B) Scanty non-mucoid discharge with normal hearing
• (C) Discharge with mastoid involvement
• (D) Movement of the membrane is abnormal

3. Of the below rubric which is under generalities of Kent’s repertory ;

• (A) Awkwardness
• (B) Feels better when constipated
• (C) Chilliness from putting hands out of bed-fever chilliness
• (D) Leprosy, psoriasis eruption

4. Which drug belongs to Solanaceae?

• (A) Dulcamara (B) Drosera
• (C) Equisetum hyemale (D) Digitalis purperea

5. Which group is the universal donor of blood?

• (A) A Group (B) B Group
• (C) AB Group (D) 0 Group

6. To which disease in the below serum glutamic oxalate transaminase level is studied?

• (A) Hepato cellular damage (B) Renal Glomerular damage
• (C) Enlarged prostate (D) Bronchi ectasis

7. Of the below which is pterigium?

• (A) Pigments present in the retina
• (B) Pigments present in the conjunctiva
• (C) Twitching of the eyelid
• (D) Blood vessels are growing in the outer canthus

8. Of the below in which repertory amelioration is omitted in relationship of remedies?

• (A) Boenning Hausen’s therapeutic pocket book
• (B) Synthesis
• (C) Kent’s repertory
• (D) Complete repertory

9. Of these which drug is having longing for alcohol a popular remedy in Russia for drunkards?

• (A) Nuxvomica                  (B) Quercus Glandium Spiritus
• (C) Asarum Europaeum (D) Capsicum

10. Of the below which is the suitable method to obtain the pathogenetic power of the drugs?

• (A) Animal experiment
• (B) Experiment on plants
• (C) Experiment on disease person
• (D) Experiment by the doctors taking the medicine internally

11. Of the below who is fit to be a homoeopathic physician?

• (A) Doctor framing questions so as to get answer yes or no
• (B) Doctor framing general expressions regarding the parts, mind
• (C) Doctor who writes prescriptions by seeing the report
• (D) Doctor who prescribes by simply seeing the patient

12. Of these which symptoms merit for prescription?

• (A) Symptoms gathered while taking the medicine
• (B) Symptoms expressed in vague terms
• (C) Symptoms pursued carefully and circumstantially
• (D) Symptoms obtain from the friends and relatives

13. Of these which is required for the physician to prescribe the correct remedy?

• (A) Knowledge of pathogenetic powers of few medicines
• (B) Knowledge of pathogenetic effects of several drugs
• (C) Knowledge of therapeutic hints
• (D) Knowledge of previous experience treating the same type of disease

14. Of the below small pox, measles whooping cough belong to which type?

• (A) Acute diseases attacking individually
• (B) Acute diseases attacking several persons
• (C) Acute diseases attacking many persons by the same cause
• (D) Acute diseases affecting once in a life time

15. Of these which is of indescribable diversity?

• (A) Syphilis (B) Psora
• (C) Sycosis (D) Drug diseases

16. Of these which symptoms are pure symptoms?

• (A) Symptoms before the use of medicine (B) Symptoms while taking the medicine
• (C) Symptoms while taking tranquillizers (D) Symptoms after operation

17. Of the below which is the correct one?

• (A) Characteristic of an epidemic is obtained from the knowledge of previous epidemics
• (B) Characteristics of an epidemic is obtained from the knowledge of study of several patient
• (C) Characteristics of an epidemic is obtained by studying one patient
• (D) Characteristics of an epidemic is obtained by the book knowledge

18. Of the below which is advocated by Hahnemann?

• (A) In a freshly arisen eruption of itch after sulphur in answer to a slight change of symptoms to interpose between the dose of sulphur, a small dose of hepar sulphuris calcareum
• (B) In a freshly arisen eruption of itch after sulphur in answer to a slight change of symptoms to inter pose between the doses of sulphur, a small dose of calcarea carbonica
• (C) Lycopodium
• (D) Causticum

19. Of the below who said “We often hear patients classified on snap judgement as a pulsatilla patient, a nux vomica patient or perhaps a phosphorous patient. Because of the general build and colouring associated with these remedies many mistakes have been made in prescribing on this so called type method”?

• (A) H.A. Roberts (B) Kent
• (C) Stuart Close (D) Hahnemann

20. The following is written by one of the below Doctors :
Biological development : Function creates and develops the organs
Of disease development : Functional symptoms are produced by the vital force in exact proportion to the profundity of the disturbance. Functional symptoms precede structural change.

• (A) Dr. Kent                (B) Dr. H.A. Roberts
• (C) Dr. Stuart Close (D) Dr. Hahnemann

21. Of the below who said “A rational knowledge of anatomy is important. No homoeopath ever discouraged the true study of anatomy and physiology”?

• (A) Stuart Close (B) Kent
• (C) H.A. Roberts (D) Hering

22. By which method Hahnemann got the idea similia similibus curentur?

• (A) Deduction (B) Induction
• (C) Generalisation (D) Individualisation

23. Of these which is Tennis Elbow?

• (A) Tenderness on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
• (B) Tenderness on the medial epicondyle of the humerus
• (C) Swelling of the elbow joint
• (D) Atrophy of the muscles attached to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus

24. Of the below which is cerebral irritation?

• (A) The patient becomes unconscious for a short period followed by complete recovery
• (B) Unconsciousness is prolonged. Patient recovers with confusion, irritability,delirium blood pressure is reduced. Complaints head ache, photo phobia
• (C) Patient remains curled up with knees drawn up, arms flexed
• (D) Brain surface is torn. Effusion of blood in. the cerebrospinal fluid. Patient complaints headache, photophobia

25. Of the below which method is useful to stain mycobacterium tuberculosis?

• (A) Ziehlneelsens method (B) Gram’s method
• (C) Alberts stain (D) Flemings method

26. Of these which test is done to diagnose tubercular infection?

• (A) Casoni’s test (B) Frei test
• (C) Montoux test (D) Dick test

27. Which is the varicose ulcer?

• (A) Ulcer in the neck, axilla
• (B) Ulcer in the upper part of the face
• (C) Ulcer on the medial malleolus of lower limb
• (D) Ulcer in Glans pens

28. Pain worse after use. The joint feels stiff after rest and it hurts the patient to get going. The joint may give way or locked crepitus is felt. X-ray shows dimunition of joint space. Of the below in which condition these clinical points are elicited?

• (A) Tuberculosis of the knee (B) Osteo arthritis of the knee
• (C) Acute pyogenic arthritis (D) Osteo chondroitis

29. To which condition of the below the infective endocarditis belongs?

• (A) Presence of organism in the blood
• (B) Infective micro organisms invade the blood stream and multiply therein
• (C) Septicaemia with pyaemia
• (D) Sapraemia

30. Of the below which organism is having terminal spore?

• (A) Streptococcus (B) Pneumococcus
• (C) Anthrax bacillus (D) Tetanus bacillus

31. Of these which is belonging to the individual?

• (A) Peculiar symptoms (B) General symptoms
• (C) Local symptoms (D) Past symptoms

32. Of these which is acting more powerfully than others?

• (A) Medicines act more powerfully
• (B) Infections act more powerfully
• (C) Telluric influences act more powerfully
• (D) Meteoric influences act more powerfully

33.Of the below which one complicates the chronic malady?

• (A) Allopathic method (B) Homoeopathic method
• (C) Two dissimilar affections (D) Continuation of maintaining causes

34. Who taught the palliative method?

• (A) Galen’s Teaching(B) Plato’s teaching
• (C) Asclepias teaching (D) Cullen’s teaching

35. Of the below in which palliative method is done?

• (A) Natural disease (B) Sudden accidents
• (C) Incurable diseases (D) Acute diseases

36. Of the below through which the medicine acts?

• (A) Acts through blood vessels (B) Acts through the tongue
• (C) Acts through the nose (D) Acts through the sentient nerves

37. Of these which is deducted according to logic?

• (A) Law of totality of symptoms (B) Law of nature to cure diseases
• (C) Law of modalities (D) Law of generals

38.Of the below which eradicates permanently the other one?

• (A) Two dissimilar diseases meet together
• (B) Two similar diseases meet together
• (C) Two mechanical injuries occur together
• (D) Two poisonous stings occur together

39. Of the below which is the fixed miasm?

• (A) Small pox (B) Mechanical injury
• (C) Surgical disease (D) Congenital corporeal constitution

40.Of the below which is the curative action?

• (A) Every medicine deranges the vital force
• (B) Resistant action by the vital force
• (C) Alternating action
• (D) Action of miasms

41. In which of the below it should not be treated immediately by antipsorics?

• (A) Mental diseases resulting from corporeal maladies
• (B) Schizophrenia
• (C) Insanity caused by fright, vexation abuse of intoxicants
• (D) Psychosomatic disorders

42. Of the below which is the correct method?

• (A) In no case it is requisite to administer more than one single, simple medicinal substance at one time
• (B) Combination of mother tinctures
• (C) Combination of various triturations
• (D) Combinations of mother tinctures and triturations

43. Of the below which type of pass diminishes the excessive restlessness and sleeplessness?

• (A) By making a very rapid motion of the flat extended hand
• (B) A gentle less rapid negative pass
• (C) By touching from head to foot
• (D) By touching from foot to head

44. Of the below which aphorism helped Kent to construct the mental generals?

• (A) Aphorism 211 , (B) Aphorism 210
• (C) Aphorism 209 (D) Aphorism 208

45. Of the below which constitutes intermittent diseases?

• (A) Sporadically appear (B) Epidemically appear
• (C) Complicated with sycosis (D) Psoric complicated with syphilis

46. In which of the below the patient suffers all the more from the excessive medicinal disease and from the useless exhaustion of his strength?

• (A) Antipathic treatment
• (B) Small frequent doses
• (C) Larger the dose with greater homoeopathicity and the higher the potency
• (D) Large doses of allopathic medicine

47. Of the below which is recovery according to Stuart Close?

• (A) By the treatment which is not directly and specifically curative in nature
• (B) By the administration of suitable antipsoric medicines
• (C) By the administration of single high potency drug
• (D) By the administration of single lower potency drug

48. Of the below which comes under the grade I according to the obstetrical cases :

• (A) Patients with cardiac disease but without resulting limitation of physical activity.Ordinary physical activity does not cause undue fatigue, palpitation, dyspnoea oranginal pain
• (B) Patients with cardiac disease resulting in marked limitation of physical activity.They are comfortable at rest
• (C) Patients with cardiac disease resulting in inability to carry on any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of cardiac insufficiency are present even at rest
• (D) None of the above

49. Which is responsible for the second sound of the heart?

• (A) Sudden closure ofA.V. valves (B) Closure of the semilunar valves
• (C) Opening of the A.V. valves (D) Opening of the semilunar valves

50. Which is the infecting agent of ankylostoma duodenale?

• (A) Filariform larva (B) Mosquito bite
• (C) Inhalation of dust (D) Bite of sand fly

51. Which type displays the female sex characters?

• (A) Anthropoid pelvis (B) Gynaecoid pelvis
• (C) Platy pelloid type (D) None of the above

52. Of the below which is responsible for infantile convulsion?

• (A) Asphyxia neonatorum (B) Icterus neonatorum
• (C) Ophthalmia neonatorum (D) Patent Foramen ovale

53. Which is responsible to maintain 85% colloidal osmotic pressure?

• (A) Albumin (B) Fibrinogen
• (C) Prothrombin (D) Globulin

54. Which is the sensory tract?

• (A) Rubro spinal tract (B) Tecto spinal tract
• (C) Olivo spinal tract (D) Tract of burdach

55. How many fontanelle are present in a foetus?

• (A) Four fontanelle (B) Three fontanelle
• (C) Two fontanelle (D) Five fontanelle

56. Which artery is obliterated after the birth of the infant?

• (A) Obliteration of the hypogastric arteries
• (B) Obliteration of epigastric arteries
• (C) Obliteration of the renal artery
• (D) Obliteration of the brachial artery

57. Of the below which is the correct one?

• (A) Theory of vital force and drug dynamistation was elaborated first in fifth edition of organon
• (B) Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in fourth edition of organon
• (C) Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated in third edition of organon
• (D) Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated in second edition of organon

58. Of the below persons who introduced the clinical observation?

• (A) Hippocrates (B) Hahnemann
• (C) Galen (D) Paracelsus

59. Of the below who wrote the introduction to the sixth edition of organon translated by Dr. William Boericke?

• (A) Dr. William Boericke (B) Dr. Hale
• (C) Dr. Boger (D) Dr. James Kraus

60. In which aphorism the preserver of health is mentioned?

• (A) 3rd Aphorism (B) 4th Aphorism
• (C) 7th Aphorism (D) 9th Aphorism

61. Of these which term is used in sixth edition of organon?

• (A) Vital Force (B) Vital Principle
• (C) Dynamic Power (D) Dynamic Energy

62. Of the below periods in which period the manuscript of the sixth edition of organon was in danger of being lost?

• (A) Year 1870 to 1871 and years 1914 to 1918
• (B) Year 1872 to 1873 and years 1919 to 1923
• (C) Year 1874 to 1875 and years 1924 to 1928
• (D) Year 1876 to 1877 and years 1929 to 1933

63. Of the below four persons by whom “Cessat-Effectus Cessat Causa” was declared?

• (A) Galen (B) Hippocrates
• (C) Paracelsus (D) Hahnemann

64. Of the below which method is palliative?

• (A) Homoeopathy (B) Allopathy
• (C) Isopathy (D) Antipathy

65. Of the below in which aphorism “causes are mentioned”?

• (A) 5th Aphorism (B) 6th Aphorism
• (C) 7th Aphorism (D) 8th Aphorism

66. Of the below which is peculiar symptom?

• (A) Single symptom (B) Local symptom
• (C) Multiple symptoms (D) Singular symptom

67. Of the below which is homoeopathic aggravation?

• (A) Appearance of old symptoms (B) Appearance of new symptoms
• (C) Secondary action (D) Primary action

68. In which condition of the below it is said as accessory symptoms?

• (A) Indisposition (B) Distinctive symptoms
• (C) Vaguely described symptoms (D) New symptoms appear

69. In which of the below imperfect selection of the medicine is inevitable?

• (A) Psoric cases
• (B) Syphilitic cases
• (C) Present one or two severe violent symptoms
• (D) Sycotic cases

70. Which of the below do not constitute sharply separated from all others?

• (A) Psora (B) Syphilis
• (C) Mental diseses (D) Sycosis

71. Of the below which symptoms of the Drug Acts?

• (A) All the symptoms of the drug (B) Homoeopathic symptoms
• (C) Common symptoms of the drug (D) Pathological symptoms

72. Of the below which is advocated by Hahnemann in posthumous edition?

• (A) Administration of one dose alone (B) Gradually higher doses
• (C) Only below 30th centesimal potency (D) Only higher potency

73. In which condition of the below several anti psoric remedies are given in succession?

• (A) Diseases of varying nature due to congenital corporeal constitution
• (B) Indisposition
• (C) Syphilitic miasm
• (D) Sycotic miasm

74. In which of the below the local affection increases gradually :

• (A) A part of the general disease
• (B) By repeated application of antipathic drugs
• (C) Mechanical irritation
• (D) Sudden poisonings

75. In which Gut Dysfunction in absence of demonstrable organic pathology?

• (A) Cholera (B) Dysentery
• (C) Irritable bowel syndrome (D) Diveritcolitis Coli

76. In which “pea soup diarrhoea is noted?

• (A) Cholera
• (C) Rheumatic fever
• (B) Typhoid
• (D) Pyelitis

77. Which is intermediate host for Taenia saginata?

• (A) Man (B) Cattle
• (C) Cat (D) Dog

78. Which is caused by Echinococcus granulosus?

• (A) Polycystic ovary(B) Hydatid cyst
• (C) Hepatitis infective(D) Cystic lung

79. Of the below which is fat soluble vitamin :

• (A) Thiamine(B) Riboflavine
• (C) Pyridoxine(D) Vitamin E

80. In which condition cardiac-enzymes raised?

• (A) Endocarditis(B) Angina pectoris
• (C) Myocardial infarction(D) Left ventricular hypertrophy

81. Of the below who is with glycosuria-closely related to diet, who becomes sugar free with slight restriction :

• (A) Potential Diabetes (B) Renal Glycosuria
• (C) Pregnancy Glycosuria (D) Emotional Glycosuria

82. Which lesion is caused by Leishmania tropica?

• (A) Oriental sore(B) PIasmodium falciparum
• (C) Glaucoma(D) PIasmodium malariae

83. Which is causing quartan disease?

• (A) PIasmodium vivax(B) Lymphangitis
• (C) PIasmodium ovale(D) Neuritis

84. Of the below drugs which is used in kidney affections?

• (A) Cephalandra indica • (B) Coleum aromaticus
• (C) Calotropis gigantica (D) Carica pappaya

85. Of the below which is the correct one?

• (A) When triturations attain the 3X potency then only it will be fit to be converted into liquid potency
• (B) When triturations attain the 5X potency then only it will be fit to be converted into liquid potency
• (C) When triturations attains the 6X potency, then only it will be fit to be converted into liquid potency
• (D) When triturations attains the 12X potency then only it will be fit to be converted into liquid potencies

86. Of the below findings which is the correct one?

• (A) Water weighs at 20° 997.38 grams (B) Water weighs at 25° 995.92 grams
• (C) Water weighs at 30° 995.62 grams (D) Water weighs at 40° 996.75 grams

87. By whom law of similars was noted before Hahnerhann?

• (A) Law of similars is the original discovery ofHahnemann as Art-Science
• (B) Law of similars was noted by Hippocrates before Hahnemann
• (C) Law of similars was noted by Asclepias before Hahnemann
• (D) Law of similars was noted by Cullen before Hahnemann

88. Of the below which is the minimum age of a girl who can give valid consent in writing in the presence of one witness for medical examination in case of rape or kidnapping?

• (A) A girl of 14 years of age (B) A girl of 13 years of age
• (C) A girl of 12 years of age (D) A girl of 15 years of age

89. Of the below statement which is correct?

• (A) Potencies above 30th are high potencies
• (B) Potencies above 1000th are high potencies
• (C) Potencies above 200th are high potencies
• (D) Potencies above 500th are high potencies

90. Of the below statements which is correct?

• (A) Asclepias in the balance written by Aristotle
• (B) Asclepias in the balance written by Cullen
• (C) Asclepias in the balance written by Plato
• (D) Asclepias in the balance written by Hahnemann

91. Of the above in which edition the theory of chronic disease appeared first?

• (A) Theory of chronic disease appeared first in the second edition oforganon
• (B) Theory of chronic diseases appeared first in the third edition of organon
• (C) Theory of chronic diseases appeared first in the fourth edition of organon
• (D) Theory of chronic diseases first appeared in the fifth edition oforganon

92. Of the below which is a correct one?

• (A) Every medicine acts on all parts of the body
• (B) Every medicine acts in a determinate manner
• (C) Every medicine either depresses or excites
• (D) Every medicine acts as a tonic

93. Of the below which is the suitable medicine?

• (A) The medicine which has the greatest similarity to the totality of symptoms
• (B) The medicine which has previously cured the same type of disease
• (C) The medicine which has developed the same type of lesions in animal experimentation
• (D) Medicines belonging the same family of plant kingdom or animal kingdom when the indicated drug is not available

94. Of the below which forms the materia medica pura?

• (A) Collection of real, pure, reliable modes of action of simple medicinal substances
• (B) Collection of details from the experience of physicians
• (C) Collection of details from poisonings
• (D) Collection of details from animal experimentation

95. Of the below which requires change in diet regulations?

• (A) Indisposition (B) Allopathic bungling
• (C) Chronic disease (D) Surgical disease

96. In which aphorism of the below Hahnemann has said that he opened the path of great truth homoeopathy for the blessings of humanity?

• (A) Aphorism 109 (B) Aphorism 110
• (C) Aphorism 111 (D) Aphorism 112

97. Of the below by which the correct data regarding the drug action can be obtained?

• (A) All the alterations can be studied from a single prover
• (B) All the alterations can be ascertained at once in the same experiment
• (C) All the alterations can be ascertained by several experiments on several persons
• (D) All the alterations can be ascertained by the study on laboratory animals

98. In which of the below that nothing can be accurately observed during proving?

• (A) When large doses taken (B) When more moderate doses taken
• (C) When small doses taken (D) When minute doses taken

99. Of the below which type is cured by homoeopathy in a few days?

• (A) Acute disease (B) Some what longer standing
• (C) Complicated cases (D) Allopathic bungling

100. Of the below in which numerous striking symptoms are present?

• (A) Indisposition (B) Chronic diseases
• (C) Acute diseases (D) Poisoning cases

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 Maximum: 100 marks    Time :2 hours

1. Write briefly on
(a) Classification of goiter.
(b) Causes of post-operative fever.
(c) Gastroschisis.
(d) Anatomy of Stensen’s duct.
(e) A young adult male is brought to the casualty with fracture pelvis. There is Perineal Haematoma and blood at the external meatus. How will you manage the case?                                     (5X4=20marks)

2. What is meant by:

• (a) Saint’s triad; (d) String sign of Kantor; and
• (b) Troissier’s sign; (e) Fallot’s tetralogy?
• (c) Canal of Nuck;                                                                         (5xX 1 = 5 marks)

3. (a) What is the size of endotracheal tube to be used for a one-year old child ?
(b) What is the concentration of oxygen and carbon dioxide in expired air?
(c) What the drug used for spinal anesthesia ?
(d) What is the fluid requirement per kg.t/24 hrs of a 2 days old baby without excess fluid loss?
(e) What is the treatment of respiratory arrest due to respiratory alkalosis?               (5X1=5marks)

4. (a) Having explored, confirmed and dealt with a testicular torsion, what should you do next?
(b) What are the different types of hypospadias?
(c) What will you do when you see a middle-aged man with a sudden onset aricocoele on the left side?
(d) What is the superficial inguinal pouch?
(e) What are the precancerous. conditions affecting the penis?                                (5X1=5marks)

5. (a) What is the surgical treatment of a small primary Carcinoma of the anterior third of the tongue with involvement of a unilateral lymph node?
(b) Which parotid tumours tend to spread perineurally?
(c)  Which is the commonest type of sarcoma child ?
(d) Carcinoma of the upper, middle or lower the rectum—which has the best prognosis ? Why?
(e) What is meant by Occult Carcinoma of the breast?                                       (5 X 1 = 5 marks)

6. (a) What are the complications of Amoebic Colitis?
(b) Name the pancreatic anomaly which causes duodenal obstruction.
(c). What is the organism which causes Fulminant Parotitis?
(d) What is the commonest of the upper renal tract? -
(e) What is aihum?                                                                                           (5X1=5marks)

7. (a) Which aspect of gastric function is measured by insulin test?
(b) What is the fatal complication peculiar to highly selective vagotomy?
(c) Which benign tumour of the stomach may ulcerate through the mucosa giving the appearance of malignancy?
(d) Which type of gastric carcinoma has a 75% five-year survival?
(e) What may be the cause of G.LT. bleeding in a patient with severe burns? (5 X 1 = 5 marks)

8. (a) How many calyces are seen in each kidney in LV.P.?
(b) What is the commonest cause of a renal mass in neonates?
(c) What is the usual major complication associated with a horse-shoe kidney?
(d) Name the two benign neoplasms of the kidney?
(e) Why is vesicoureteric reflux commoner in children than adults?                        (5 X 1 = 5 marks)

9. (a) Which endocrine glands are involved in multiple endocrine adenomatosis type 1
(b) Which type of Carcinoma thyroid is commoner in areas of endemic goitre?
(c) Where are the crypts of Luscbka found?
(d) Majority of Meckel’s diverticulum that bleed do so in which age group?
(e) What is the condition predisposing to sympathetic ophthalmia ?                          (5X1=5marks)

10.(a) What are the bony deformities found in a supracondylar fracture of the humerus?
(b) What are the complications of posterior dislocation of hip?
(c) What is Bennett’s fracture?
(d) What is enchondroma?
(e) What is a bunion?                                                                              (5 X 2 = 10 marks)

11.(a) Why does blood not clot in the pleural cavity?
(b) What is the site of election of amputation humerus?
(c) What are the types of intestinal polyps that are definitely premalignant?
(d) Which bacteria may produce the clinical picture of acute appendicitis, but at laparotomy the appendix appears to be normal?
(e) In acute pancreatitis when does the serum calcium level generally fall?         (5 X 1 = 5 marks)
12.(a) What is the sex ratio of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?
(b,) Define Keloid?
(c) Where do you expect to find splenunculi
(d) What are the indication for surgery in ureteric calculus ?
(e) Meconium ileus is the neonatal manifestation of which disease ?                     (5X1=5marks)

13. (a) What is a cholesteatoma?
(b) What is meant by neurolysis?
(c) Where is a Spigelian hernia felt?
(d) What is the prognosis of sacrococcygeal tumour?
(e) What is white bile?                                                                                  (5X1=5marks)

14.(a) Is a male or female child more likely to develop a strangulated inguinal hernia? (1 mark)
(b) Which foramen does the middle meningeál artery traverse? (1 mark)
(c) At similar clinical stages which is more sinister—Melanotic or Amelanotic Melanoma?(1 mark)
(e) What is Well’s operation for prolapse rectum? (4 marks)

15.Select the correct answer:                                                      (5×1=5)
(1) The five-year survival fate after treatment of all varieties of carcinoma of the tongue is:
(a) 10 %; (b) 15 %; (c) 25 %; (d) 40 %.

(2) Proud flesh is the term used to describe:
(a) Muscle protruding through a skin wound.
(b) Hypertrophy of the nose.
(c) Excessive granulation tissue.
(d) Hypertrophy of the tongue.

(3) If hepatitis follows blood transfusion it occurs
(a) One week later.
(b) One month later.
(c) Three months later.
(d) Six months later.

(4) Operative control of bleeding from wounds of the scalp is best achieved by
(a) Direct pressure applied to the ski
(b) Diathermy to bleeding vessels.
(c) Eversion of galea aponeurotica.
(d) Applying several forceps to the bleeding points.

(5) The weight of patients subsisting entirely on parenteral fluids should:
(a) Gain 1O0-200 gm /day-
(b) Lose 100 – 200 gm /day
© keep weight steadily
(d) Loose 300-500 gm./day

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Question Paper of  Kerala Public Service Commission  Tutor  in Physiology & Biochemistry 1991
C series  170/2005     Maximum: 100 marks     Time : 2 hour

1.Define:
(a) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate. (d) Marey’s law.
(b) Frank Starling’s law (e) Vital capacity.
(c) Law of intestine.

 2. Give the normal values of: 5

• (a) Plasma Prothrombin level.
• (b) Absolute Eosinophil count.
• (c) Normal protein bound iodine in the blood.
• (d) Blood glucose level.
• (e) Cardiac output.

 3. Write one function each of the following :— 5

• (a) Haemoglobin.
• (b) Lymphocyte.
• (c) Albumin.
• (d) Sinoatrial node.
• (e) Type 2 cells or granular pnumocyte

4. Write the regulating hormones of the following — 5

• (a) FSH and L (d) serum calcium.
• (b) Testosterone. (e) Blood sugar.
• (c) Growth hormone.

5. Mention the type of cells secreting the following hormones  5

• (a) Calcitonin. (d) Anti-diuretic hormone.
• (b) Oestrogen in male. (e) Aldosterone.
• (c) Inhibin.

6. Explain the following :—                            5

• (a) Bohr effect. (d) Chloride shift.
• (b) Cyanosis. (e) Monro-Kellie doctrine.
• (c) Bohr’s equation.

7. Compare and contrast:    10

• (a) Action potential of Skeletal muscle and Cardiac muscle.
• (b) Neutrophil and Eosinophil.
• (c) Reticulocyte and Mature RBC.
• (d) Synapse and Neuromuscular junctiOn.
• (e) Residual volume and Functional residual capacity.

8. Give reason for the following statements :– 10

• (a) Cardiac muscle cannot be tetanised.
• (b) Mental retardation is seen in infants with hypothyroidism.
• (c) Constipation is feature of Hirschsprung’s disease.
• (d) Clay coloured stools is seen in Obstructive Jaundice.
• (e) Hyperpigmentation is seen in Cushing’s disease.

9. Give short notes on: 10

• (a) Hering-Breuer inflation reflex.
• (b) Axon reflex.
• (c) Sino aortic reflexes.
• (d) Accommodation reflex
• (e) Conditioned reflex.

10. Mention the most important regulatory mechanism in the secretion of: 5

• (a) Aldosterone.
• (b) Parathormone.
• (c) Prolactin.
• (d) Human chorionic gonadotropin.
• (e) Vasopressin.

11.Name the structure in the following condition. 5.

• (a) Paralysis agitans. (4) Athetosis.
• (b) Tetany. (e) Hemiballism.
• (c) Diabetic insipidus

12. Name the receptors of:     5

• (a) Colour vision . (d) Co1d.
• (b) Taste. . (e) Warmth. (c) Pain.

13. Name the following :— 5

• (a) Largest WBC.
• (b) Fastest conducting tissue of heart.
• (c) Tissue with highest rhythmicity
• (d) Relaxing proteins.
• (e) Maturation factors.

14. Enumerate the functions of: 15

• (a) Blood platelets: (d) Cerebellum,
• (b) Gall bladder. (e) HCI in gastric juice. (c) Bile salts.

15. Describe Brodmann’s areas situated in parietal lobe. 5

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C series  170/2005     Maximum: 100 marks     Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes 

1.Astigmatism is corrected by using…… lens
(A) Concave   (B) Convex.
(C) Cylindrical (D) None of the above.

2. Auto regulation of blood flow is not seen in not seen in :

• (A) Heart (B) Liver.
• (C) Brain (D) Kidney.

3.Which of the following is present in pancreatic secretion :

• (A) Pepsin (B) Renin.
• (C) Trypsin (D) Enteropeptidase.

4. Which of the following is a dietary fiber :

• (A)Collagen   (B) Pectin.
• (C) Keratin  (D) Elastin.

5. Anatomical capacity of human urinary bladder (in ml) is :

• (A) 500 (B) 1000.
• (C) 1500 (D) 2000.

6.Motor speech area is

• (A) Wernicke’s area (B) Angular gyms.
• (C) Arcuate fasciculus (D) Broca’s area.

7 Which is function of albumin :

• (A) Maintain plasma oncotic preassure
• (B) maintain plasma hydrostaic pressure.
• (C) Coagulatioon of blood
• (D) Immunity

8. All the following can be measured by simple spirometry except:

• (A) Inspiratory reserve volume (B) Expiratory reserve volume.
• (C )Residual volume. (D) Tidal volume.

9. In athlets bradycardia is because ‘

• (A) Becreased sympathetic tone. (B) Increased vagal tone.
• (C) ‘Decreased vagal tone (D) Increased sympathetic tone.

10. Testes does not produce :

• (A) Estradiol. (B) Testosterpne.
• (C) Fructose. (D) Inhibin.

11. Osmolality of plasma in a normal adult (in mosm/L) is :

• (A) 250—270. (B) 270—290.
• (C) 300-320. (D) 320—340.

12. Which of the following can be used as a screening test for haemophilia ?

• (A) Clotting time. (B) Bleeding time.
• (C) Prothrombin time. (D) Partial thromboplastin time.

13. Following are features of hyperthyroidism except:

• (A) Tachycardia. (B) Exophthalmos.
• (C) Increased apetite. (D) Old intolerence.

14. Spasticity indicates :

• (A) Cerebellar disease. (B) Autonomic imbalance.
• (C) Lower motor neuron injury. (D) Upper motor neuron injury.

15. Normal level ofcreatinine in serum (in mg %) is :

• (A) 0.6—1.2. (B) 1.2—2.
• (C) 2—2.6. (D) 2.6—3.2

16. Mean arterial pressure refers to :

• (A) Systolic pressure + Diastolic pressure/2
• (B) Diastolic pressure/2
• (C) Systolic pressure + Pulse pressure/2
• (D) Diastolic pressure + Pulse pressure/3

17. In addison’s disease, the following are seen except:

• (A) Hyponatremia. (B) Hypokalemia.
• (C) Hypoglycemia. (D) Low blood pressure.

18. The most important anion in respiration is :

• (A) Chloride. (B) Phosphate,
• (C) Sulphate. (D) Bicarbonate.

19. Menopausal hot flushes are due to :

• (A) Decreased oestrogen. (B) Decreased progesterone.
• (C) LH surge. (D) FSH surge.

20. The normal glomerular filtration rate (in ml/mt) is :

• (A) 100. (B) 125.
• (C) 150. (D) 175.

21. Maximum enzyme activity is observed at:

• (A) Acidic pH. (B) Optimum pH.
• (C) Alkaline pH. (D) None of the above.

22. An example for a ketogenic aminoacid :

• (A) Leucine. (B) Isoleucine.
• (C) Phenyl alanine. (D) Valine.

23. Active site of enzyme :

• (A) Have a rigid shape.
• (B) Bind the substrate.
• (C) Are preserved even after denaturation.
• (D) Decided by primary structure alone.

24. “Fats” are chemically :

• (A) Lipoproteins. (B) Prostaglandins.
• (C) Triglycerides. (D) Phospholipids.

25. The most important factor which controls the blood sugar level is :

• (A) Level of insulin in the blood.
• (B) Storage of glycogen in the liver.
• (C) Blood glucose concentration itself.
• (D) Activity of hexokinase.

26. Hypoalbuminemia may be a feature of the following conditions except:

• (A) Cirrhosis of liver. (B) Nephrotic syndrom.
• (C) Malnutrition. (D) Hyperlipoprotememia.

27. Urea is the catabolic product of:

• (A) Proteins. (B) Lipids.
• (C) Purines. (D) Carbohydrates.

28. Scurvy is due to deficiency of:

• (A) Thiamin. (B) Vitamin C.
• (C) Riboflavin. (D) Folic acid.

29. Peptide bond in protein has a back bone of:

• (A) C—N—N—C. (B) C—C—N—C.
• (C) C—C—C—N. (D) C—O—C—N.

30. Which of the following is a lipotropic factor?

• (A) Proline. (B) Inositol.
• (C) Cardiolipin. (D) Choline.

31. All the following compounds are intermediates of TCA cycle except:

• (A) Malate. (B) Pyruvate.
• (C) Oxaloacetate. (D) Fumarate.

32. No. of ATP produced during anaerobic glycolysis is :

• (A) 12. (B) 8.
• (C) 38. (D) 2.

33. Which test is used to detect urine sugar ?

• (A) Biuret test. (B) Hay’s test.
• (C) Molisch’s test. (D) Benedict’s test.

34. Specific gravity of urine is increased in :

• (A) Diabetes mellitus. (B) Steatorrhea.
• (C) Diabetes insipidus. (D) Chronic nephritis.

35. Normal potassium level is :

• (A) 35—50meq/L. (B) 135—145meq/L.
• (C) 3.5—5meq/L. (D) 0.5—1.5meq/L.

36. An important factor in Kwashiorkor is :

• (A) Mineral deficiency. (B) Protein deficiency.
• (C) Vitamin deficiency. (D) None of them.

37. The nitrogenous base present in cephalin is :

• (A) Serine. (B) Choline.
• (C) Elhanolamine. (D) Sphingosine.

38. The coenzyme required for transamination reaction is :

• (A) Biotin. (B) Pyridoxal phosphate.
• (C) NAD. (D) FAD.

39. An example for sulfur containing aminoacid is :

• (A) Alanine. (B) Glutanic acid.
• (C) Histidine. (D) Methionine.

40. Negative N3 balance is observed in :

• (A) Pregnancy. (B) Chronic illness.
• (C) Growth period. (D) Convalescence.

41. In a healthy adult the upper limit of serum creatinine is :

• (A) 0.75mg7dl. (B) 1.20mg./dl.
• (C) 1.60mg./dl. (D) 2.00mg./dl.

42. Biological value of egg is :

• (A) 100. (B) 90.
• (C) 80. (D) 50.

43. The major cation of intracellular fluid is :

• (A) CaandMg. (B) CaandK.
• (C) KandMg. (D) KandNa.

44. The normal pH of blood plasma is :

• (A) 7.0. (B) 7.2.
• (C) 7.4. (D) 7.6.

45. Which of the following is not a ketone body ?

• (A) Acetone. (B) Acetoacetate.
• (C) Pyruvate. (D) P-Hydroxybutyrate.

46. Which of the following human tissues contains the greatest amount of body glycogen ?

• (A) Liver. (B) Pancreas.
• (C) Kidney. (D) Skeletal muscle.

47. The major role of glucocorticoids in carbohydrate metabolism is :

• (A) Stimulates glycogenesis in muscle.
• (B) Stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
• (C) Stimulates gluconcogenesis in liver.
• (D) Increased uptake of glucose by extrahepatic tissues.

48. Which of the following is not true regarding glucose ?

• (A) It is an aldohexose.
• (B) It is a reducing sugar.
• (C) It is present in starch and cellulose.
• (D) It is an epimer of fructose.

49. One of the following is not a pentose :

• (A) Mannose. (B) Xylose.
• (C) Ribose. (D) Arabinose.

50. All the following are true regarding active transport mechanism except:

• (A) A transporter molecule is present.
• (B) There is movement of solutes from lower to higher concentration.
• (C) There is movement of solutes from higher to lower concentration.
• (D) Requires energy in the form of Hydrolysis of ATP.

51. Deep branch of ulnar nerve supplies the following muscles except:

• (A) Adductor pollicis. (B) First lumbricals.
• (C) First dorsal interosseous. (D) Third lumbricals.

52. Superior cerebral vein drains into :

• (A) Great cerebral vein. (B) Vein of Galen.
• (C) Superior sagittal sinus. (D) Inferior sagittal sinus.

53. AV node is located in the :

• (A) Inter atrial septum.
• (B) Moderator band.
• (C) Muscular part of inter ventricular septum.
• (D) Membranous part of inter ventricular septum.

54. The vein into which the external jugular vein usually drain is :

• (A) Internal jugular. (B) Subclavin.
• (C) Branchiocephalic. , (D) Azygos.

55. Tactile hallucination is seen in c\c poisoning with :

• (A) Cocaine. (B) Opium.
• (C) LSD. (D) Cannabis.

56. The most reliable diagnostic sign of drowning is :

• (A) Foreign bodies in air passages.
• (B) Water in stomach.
• (C) Cutis anserine.
• (D) Froth at nostrils.

57. Ossification center appearing just before birth is :

• (A) Upper end of humerus. (B) Lower end of tibia.
• (C) Lower end of femur. (D) Scaphoid.

58. Most reliable method of identification of a person is by :

• (A) DNA analysis. (B) Finger printing.
• (C) Scars. (D) Anthrapometry.

59. Diagnostic test of secondary syphilis is :

• (A) VDRL. (B) TPHA.
• (C) Wassermann. (D) Khan.

60. Salk vaccine is a :

• (A) Killed vaccine. (B) Live vaccine.
• (C) Live attenuated vaccine. (D) Toxoid.

61. Egg contains all the vitamins except:

• (A) Vitamin B. (B) Vitamin D.
• (C) Vitamin C. (D) Vitamin E.

62. LD bodies are seen in :

• (A) Salmonellosis. (B) Leprosy.
• (C) Guinea worm infestation. (D) Leishmaniasis.

63. Placenta takes over function of corpuslutium :

• (A) 2 weeks. (B) 12 weeks.
• (C) 20 weeks. (D) 24 weeks.

64. Spasmodic dysmenorrhoea is seen in :

• (A) Ovarian tumour. (B) DUB.
• (C) Endometriosis. (D) Sub mucous fibroid.

65. Most common cause of post part endometriosis is :

• (A) E Coli. (B) Gonococcus.
• (C) Streptococcus. (D) Protius.

66. Commonest congenital anomaly of uterus is :

• (A) Uterus bicomis unicolis. (B) Uterus unicomis.
• (C) Uterus bicomis bicolis. (D) Uterus didelphi.

67. Which is not a feature of cataract ?

• (A) Black spots. (B) Polyopia.
• (C) Coloured hallow. (D) Conjunctival congestion.

68. Commonest tumour of nasopharynx is :

• (A) Fibroma. (B) Chondroma.
• (C) Papilloma. (D) Adenoma.

69. Honeycomb liver is seen in :

• (A) Micronodular cirrhosis. (B) Dubin Johnson*s syndrome.
• (C) Actinomycosis. (D) Hydatidosis.

70. Most important radiological sign of splenic rupture is :

• (A) Obliteration of psoas shadow.
• (B) Obliteration of splenic shadow.
• (C) Indentation of left side air bubble.
• (D) Fracture of one or more lower ribs on left side.

71. Commonest cause of sudden death is :

• (A) Ventricular fibrillation. (B) Cerebro vascular accident.
• (C) Ventricular asystol. (D) a\c renal failure.

72. Positive benedict test is seen with the following except:

• (A) Salicylates. (B) Glucose.
• (C) Vitamin C. (D) Cholesterol.

73. Commonest site of cerebral embolism is :

• (A) Anterior cerebral artery. (B) Middle cerebral artery.
• (C) Posterior cerebral artery. (D) Posterior communicating artery.

74. Oedepus complex has been described by :

• (A) Plato. (B) Socrates.
• (C) Freud. (D) Huxley

75. Mind Chapter of Kent’s repertory was prepared by :

• (A) Lippe. (B) Lee.
• (C) Kent. (D) Mithel.

76. Hypertension is given in :

• (A) Phatak’s repertory. (B) Synthetic repertory.
• (C) Both. (D) None.

77. Illusion of touch is given in the ————— chapter of Kent’s Repertory.

• (A) Mind. (B) Skin.
• (C) Chill. (D) Generalities.

78. “Lump sensation in rectum not ameliorated by stool” is seen in :

• (A) Anacardium. (B) Nux vom.
• (C) Aesculus. (D) Sepia.

79. Hiccough after alcoholic drink indicate :

• (A) Sulphuric acid. (B) Ranunculus bulbosus.
• (C) Nux vom. (D) Lycopodium.

80. “White mucus in stool like pieces of popped corn” indicate :

• (A) Cina. (B) Colchicum.
• (C) Cantharis. (D) Helleborus.

81. “Cough with irritation in larynx as if some fluid had gone the wrong way” is feature of:

• (A) Drosera. (B) Ignetia.
• (C) Kali carb. (D) Lachesis.

82. Indurations of glands after injuries is seen in :

• (A) Silica. (B) Carbo animalis.
• (C) Conium mac. (D) lodum.

83. In which aphorism “Homoeopathic specific remedy” is given in the 5th edition of Organon of
Medicine ?

• (A) 241. (B) 204.
• (C) 246. J (D) 240.

84. No aggravation of the patient with recovery of the patient is :

• (A) 5th observation. (B) 2nd observation.
• (C) 3rd observation. (D) 6th observation.

85. How many aphorisms are present in the 4th edition of Organon of Medicine ?

• (A) 292. (B) 320.
• (C) 259. (D) 318.

86. Accessory symptom of the medicine is given in the aphorism :

• (A) 179. (B) 163.
• (C) 170. (D) 173.

87. Nux Moschata was introduced to Homoeopathic world by :

• (A) Dr. Hahnemann. (B) Dr. Helbig.
• (C) Dr.Hering. (D) Dr. Bute.

88. One fluid ounce is :

• (A) 6fluiddrahm. (B) 5fluiddrahm.
• (C) Sfluiddrahm. (D) 7fluiddrahm.

89. Croton tig belongs to :

• (A) Euphorbinacea. (B) Umbiliferacea.
• (C) Solanacea. (D) Papaveracea.

90. Meaning of the abbreviation B.I.D. is :

• (A) Twice a day. (B) Twice daily.
• (C) Drink. (D) A large pill.

91. Which of the following is absorbed in the Colon :

• (A) Iron, (B) Protein’
• (C) Bilesalt. (D) Sodium.

92. Pucinian Corpuscles are major receptors for :

• (A) Pressure. (B) Pain.
• (C) Touch. (D) Temperature.

93. Renal calculi is seen in :

• (A) Hyperthyroidism. (B) Hyperparathyroidism.
• (C) Cushing’s disease. (D) Addison’s disease.

94. Organ of corti is concerned with :

• (A) Hearing. (B) Vision.
• (C) Smell. (D) Taste.

95. Under resting condition, the cardiac output (in L/minute) is :

• (A) 2. (B) 4.
• (C) 5. (D) 9.

96. Plateau phase of action potential curve of cardiac tissue is due to :

• (A) Opening of sodium channels. (B) Opening of potassium channels.
• (C) Opening of calcium channels. (D) Closing of sodium channels.

97. Swallowing centre is located in :

• (A) Mid brain. (B) Pons.
• (C) Medulla. (D) Cerebellum.

98. Calcitonin is produced by :

• (A) Adrenal cortex. (B) Adrenal medulla.
• (C) Parathyroid. (D) Thyroid.

99. The normal life span of RBC (in days) is :

• (A) 30. (B) 120.
• (C) 150. (D) 180.

100. Oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right in all except:

• (A) Fall in PH.    (B) Rise in temperature.
• (C) Increase of 2, 3, DPG.  (D) HbF.

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Time: Two hours Maximum: 100 marks
Answer six questions only, including Question 8.

1.What is Nephrotic Syndrome ? How will you manage such a case? When Apis mel,  Nat Mur, and Kalnua indicated in such cases?  (16 marks)

2.What are the common causes of convulsions in a child of 3 years ? Discuss its management, scope of treatment with remedies like Belladonna, Cicuta virosa and Absinthinum  (16 marks)

3.What is Typhoid state? When it occurs in conditions with and without fever? Describe the indications of Hyoscyamus in such a case.  (16 marks)

4.Mention the characters of Lower motor neurone type of lesions and compare the 7th nerve paralysis? When Causticum could be given in such paralyses?   (16 marks)

5.Discuss the features of Mitral Stenosis.Mention the scope of Arsenic Iodide in cardiac diseases.  (16 marks)

6.Describe the Aetiopathology and indications of Rickets, also the usefulness of calcarea carb in rickets (16 marks)

7.Discuss the symptoms and their pathological relations of Lobar Pneumonia? When Phosphorus may be used in pneumonia?   (16 marks)

8.Write short notes on any four

• (i) Haemophilia and their chromosomal relations
• (ii) Status Asthmaticus and its prognosis.
• (iii) Consequence of fever in Cardiac infarction
• (iv) Plummer Vision syndrome .
• (v)Weil’sdisease                                                 (4X5=20marks)

Time: Two hours Maximum: 100 marks
1. Describe the clinical features and treatment of Burns.   20
2. Write short, notes on – 32
(a) Deep palmar abscess.
(b) Fracture of pelvis.
(c) Extradural haemorrhage.
(d) Arterio-venous fistula.

3. Describe the clinical features, spread and treatment of carcinoma tongue – 18 .

• 4. Classify                                                  - 15
• (a) Shock
• (b) Goitres; and
• (c) Salivary gland tumours.

5.Enumerate                                                 -15

• (a) The Common causes of Haematuria;
• (b) The causes of Hemateaesis
• (c) D/D of acute appendicitis

A series 166/2005    Maximum : 100 marks Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes
Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
Strict compliance of instructions is essential Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the summary disqualification of the candidate.

1. The ‘QRS’ complex in the TOG* Represents :

• (A) Atrial Depolarisation.
• (C) Atrial Repolarisatibn.
• (B) Ventricular Depolarisation.
• (D) Ventricular Repolarisation.

2. Radio-femoral Delay occurs in :

• (A) Coarctation of Aorta.  (B) ASD.
• (C) VSD.    (D) PDA.

3. Eisen Mongers Syndrome occurs in :

• (A) PDA.(B) Heart Failure.
• (C) M.S.(D) A.S.

4. ‘a’ wave in the JVP corresponds to :

• (A) Ventricular contraction.
• (B) Ventricular filling.
• (C) Atrial filling.
• (D) Atrial contraction.

5. Malignant Hypertension occurs in :

• (A) Diabetes Mellitus.
• (B) Heart Disease.
• (C) Renal Disease.
• (D) None of above.

6. Specific enzyme detected in blood in Acute MI is :

• (A) CK.M.B. . (B) SGOT.
• (C) SGPT. (D) Aldosterone.

7. In respiratory distress syndrome of new born (RDS):

• (A) Cilia is devoid. (B) Hucus is collected.
• (C) Surfactant in Alveoli is Reduced. (D) None of above.

8. Chronic Corpulmonale means :

• (A) Heart failure.
• (B) Respiratory Failure.
• (C) Heart Disease secondary to lung Disease.
• (D) Primary heart disease.

9. If the unconscious patient is unarousable by all external stimuli it is caused :

• (A) Stupor. (B) Deep sleep.
• (C) Dead. (D) Coma.

10. Koilonychia is seen in :

• (A) Vit. C deficiency. (B) Malignancy,
• (C) Folic acid deficiency. (D) Iron Deficiency Anemea.

11. For psoriasis palmaris important medicine is :

• (A) Sulphur. (B) Arsiodide.
• (C) Selenium. (D) Lycopodium.

12. Stimulates the growth of Epithelium on ulcerated surfaces and found useful in Gastric and Duodenal ulcer :

• (A) Symphytum.  (B) Sulphur.
• (C) Calcare carb. (D) Arnica.

13. In stomatitis, deep longitudinal cracks on tongue and excessive flow of saliva runs out of mouth when sleeping :

• (A) Syphilinum. (B) Mercsol.
• (C) Nitric Acid. (D) Muriatic Acid.

14. In Duodenal ulcer canine Hunger and tendency to eat far beyond the capacity to digest:

• (A) Nuxuomica. (B) Abies Canadensisi
• (C) Abies Nigra. (D) Sulphur.

16. Best Tonic for Debility after Exhausting Diseases :

• (A) China. (B) Selenium.
• (C) Avena Sativa. (D) Psorinum.

16. In Hyperchlor hydria with aversion to milk and fat food :

• (A) Pulsatilla.   (B) Robinia
• (C) Acid Sulph. (D) Calcarea carb.

17. Dry Hacking cough expelling an offensive breath from lungs :

• (A) Pulsatilla. ‘ (B) Kali Iodide.
• (C) Capscicum. (D) Nitric Acid.

18. Gastralgia relieved with eating with hepatic symptoms :

• (A) Podophyllum. (B) Chelidonium.
• (C) Anacardium. , (D) Mercsol.

19. Angina pectoris with sensation as if the heart ceased to beat then starts very suddenly :

• (A) Cactus. (B) Digitalis.
• (C) Liliumtig. (D) Convallaria Majalis.

20. Painful cracks of the corner of the mouth with cancer of stomach :

• (A) Nitric acid. (B) ‘Bismuth.
• (C) Antim crud. (D) Cundurango.

21. Renal colic with pain in small of back before Hicturation and ceases after flow :

• (A) Berberis vulg. (B) Lycopodium.
• (C) Pulsatilla. (D) Nuxvomica.

22. Asthma in children as a constitutional remedy in sycotic subjects :

• (A) Natrum sulph. (B) Antimtart.
• (C) Silicea. (D) Heparsulph.

23. Rheumatism associated with urticarea like eruptions :

• (A) Rhustox. . (B) Graphites.
• (C) Urtica urens. (D) Dulcamera.

24. In Apoplexy with Headache and sensation of a lump of Ice on the vertex :

• (A) Glonoine. . (B) Belladonna.
• (C) Gelsemium. (D) veratrum alb.

25. An important remedy for pericarditis is :

• (A) Kalicarb. (B) Apis mel.
• (C) Spigelia. (D) Bryonea.

26. A medicine for post Herpetic Neuralgia :

• (A) Mezereum.  (B) Sulphur.
• (C) Bryonea. (D) Phosphorus.

27. Rheumatism of the Right wrist:

• (A) Sulphur. (B) Viola odorata.
• (C) Bryonea. (D) BezoicAcid.

28. In plica polomca :

• (A) Mercsol. (B) Natrum Mur.
• (C) Vinca Minor. (D) Sulphur.

29. A medicine tor rectal cancer :

• (A) Ruta. (B) Sulphur.
• (C) Aloes. . (D) Mercsol.

30. Epistaxis painless with Bright Red Blood :

• (A) Nitric Acid. (B) Sabina.
• (C) MillefoUum. (D) Secale cor.

31. Faecal-oral route of spread of infection is found in :

• (A) Hepatitis-B. (B) Hepatitis-C
• (C) Hepatitis-D. (D) Hepatitis-E.

32. Clinical finding not associated with Typhoid fever :

• (A) Splenomegaly. (B) Rose-spots.
• (C) Erythema marginatum. (D) Abdominal distention.

33. Which of the following is not an AIDS denning condition ?

• (A) Oesophageal candidiasis. (B) Disseminated Herpeszoster.
• (C) Cytomegalo virus Retinitis. (D) Kaposi’s Sarcoma.

34. Bradycardia is seen in the following situations except:

• (A) Hyper thyroidism. (B) Obstructive Jaundice.
• (C) Hypothyroidism. (D) Complete Heart Block.

35. What is wrong about Kweshiorkor ?

• (A) Severe wasting. (B) Generelised oedemas.
• (C) Low serum Albumin. (D) Moon face.

36. All are features of vitamin A deficiency except:

• (A) Xerophthalmia. (B) Osteomalacia.
• (C) Follicular hyperkeratosis. (D) Keratomalacia.

37. Chest pain due to pericarditis is :

• (A) Precipitated by exertion.
• (B) Radiated to left arm.
• (C) Relieved by sitting up and leaning forward.
• (D) Associated with sweating.

38. The *a* wave in the Jugular venous tracing is due to :

• (A) Ventricular Diastole. (B) Ventricular systole.
• (C) Atrial Diastole. (D) Atrial systole.

39. Continuous murmur is heard in :

• (A) Atrial septal Defect. – (B) Ventricular septal Defect.
• (C) Pallet’s tetrology. (D) Patent-Duetus Arteriosus.

40. The part of Electro cardiogram that corresponds with Ventricular depolarisation is :

• (A) Pwave. (B) QRS complex.
• (C) PR interval. (D) ST-segment.

41. The parameter is Liver function Test that is suggestive of acute parenchymal liver damage is :

• (A) led serum Albumin. (B) fed Alkaline phosphatase.
• (C) “TedSGPT. (D) Ted Acid phosphatase.

42. Massive splenomegaly can be caused by all of the following except:

• (A) Typhoid fever. (B) Chronic ryeloid Leukaem*s.
• (C) Kala Azar. (D) Chronic Malaria.

43. What is not true regarding peripheral cyanosis ?

• (A) It is produced by increased extraction of oxygen from the stagnant blood by the tissues.
• (B) The extremities are blue and warm.
• (C) The earlobes and tip of nose are usually cyanosed.
• (D) It is usually associated with hypotension.

44. Commonest cause of community acquired pneumonia is :

• (A) Streptococcus Pneumoniae. (B) Staphylococcus Aureus.
• (C) Haemophilus Influenzes. (D) Klebsilella Pneumoniae.

46. Predisposition to bronehogenie carcinoma is seen with :

• (A) Silicosis. . (B) Byssinosis.
• (C) Coal worker’s Pneumoconiosis. (D) Asbeetosis.

46. Tension Pneumothorax causes all the following clinical signs, except:

• (A) Severs dyspnoea. (B) Displacement of Mediastinum.
• (C) increased vocal Resonance. (D) Hyper resonant Percussion note.

47. Which of the following” statements is not true of Type 1 Diabetes Melletus ?

• (A) They are usually obese.
• (B) Absolute insulin deficiency.
• (C) Polyuria, polydipsis and nocturia are frequent.
• (D) More prone for keto acidosis.

48. Thyrotoxicosis is characterised by the following features, except:

• (A) Tachycardia. (B) Constipation.
• (C) Tremor. (D) Weightless.

49. Hypertension is a feature of all the following except:

• (A) Renal Artery stenosis. (B) Pheochromo cytoma.
• (C) Addison’s Disease. (D) Cushing’s syndrome

50. Trousseau’s sign is characteristic of:

• (A) Hyper Hyroidism. (B) Hypothyroidism.
• (C) Tetanus. (D) Tetany.

61. Ptosis is caused by paralysis of:

• (A) III Cranial Nerve. (B) IV Cranial Nerve.
• (C) V Cranial Nerve. (D) VI Cranial Nerve.

52. Short-shuffling gait is characteristic of:

• (A) Parkinsonism. (B) Cerebellar dysfunction.
• (C) Sensory Ataxia. (D) Proximal ryopathy.

53. All are characteristic features of Haemolysis, except:

• (A) Reticulocytosis. (B) Indirect hyperbilirubinemia.
• (C) Absent Urobilinogers in urine. (D) Polychromasia.

54. Spasticity is a feature of:

• (A) Pyramidal lesion. (B) Extra pyramidal lesion.
• (C) Cerebellar lesion. (D) LMN lesion.

65. Which of the following is not a feature of systemic Lupus Erythematosis ?

• (A) Malar Rash. (B) Leucocytosis.
• (C) Serositis. (D) Anti-DNA antibodies.

56. A 22 year old primi gravida on her 7th day of full term normal delivery, developed headache, vomiting, convulsion and weakness both legs. The most likely diagnosis is :

• (A) Thrombosis of the Middle cerebral Artery.
• (B) Intracranial haemorrhage. .
• (C) Brain Abscess.
• (D) Superior sagital sinus thrombosis.

57. HBsAG is found to be associated with :

• (A) Poly myositis. (B) Rheumatoid Arthritis.
• (C) Polyarteritis Nodosa. (D) SLE.

58. HaemophiIia-A is :

• (A) X linked dominant. (B) Mucosal bleeding is a common presentation.
• (C) Due to factor IX deficiency. (D) Manifested only in males.

59. Features ofcushing’s syndrome include the following, except:

• (A) Centripetal obisity. (B) Hypotension.
• (C) Striae. (D) Osteoporosis.

60. Murphy’s sign is characteristic of:

• (A) Acute pancreatitis. (B) Intestinal obstruction.
• (C) Acute cholecystitis. (D) Acute pericarditis.

61. Non pulsatile distended neek views are likely to be due to :

• (A) Congestive Heart failure. (B) Portal Hypertension.
• (C) Pericardial effusion. (D) Mediastinal obstruction.

62. Koilonychia is seen m :

• (A) Wilsdn’s Disease. (B) Iron deficiency Anaemia.
• (C) Haemochromatosin. 0) Megaloblastic Anaemia.

63. Pyogenic Meningitis in Pre-School Children—the commonest organism is :

• (A) Haemophilus Influenza. (B) Group B streptococci.
• (C) Neisseria Meningitidis. (D) E.Coli.

64. Features of furidan poisoning include tne following, except:

• (A) Ted bronchial secretion. (B) Dialated pupils.
• (C) Fasciculations. (D) Altered consciousness.

65. Haemetemesis is commonly caused by all of the following except:

• (A) Duodenal ulcer. (B) Carcinoma stomach.
• (C) Liver Abscess. (D) Erosive gastritis.

66. Incubation period of chicken pox is :

• (A) 1—7 days. (B) 7—14 days.
• (C) 14-21 days. (D) 21-28 days.

67. Features of Ted Intra cranial tension include all of the following except:

• (A) Head Ache. (B) Vomiting.
• (C) Hyper tension. (D) Tachycardia.

68. Lumbar puncture is contra indicated in :

• (A) Meningitis. (B) Subarachnoid Haemorrhage.
• (C) Guillain Barre syndrome. (D) Ted Intracranial tension.

69. Hyperpigmentation is not a feature of:

• (A) Pheochromo cytoma. (B) Haemochronatosis.
• (C) Addison’s Diseases. (D) Nelson’s syndrome.

70. Death during first hour of acute Myocardial infarction is mostly caused by

• (A) Pulmonary oedema.  (B) Arrhythmias
• (C) Papillary muscle-rupture. (D) Thrombo embolism

71. Flag sign is characteristic to :

• (A) Psoriasis.  (B) Leprosy
• (C) Kwashiorkor. (D) Malnutrition

72. Bitot’s spots seen in :

• (A) Vit A’Deficiency. (B) Vit ‘C’Deficiency.
• (C) Both A and B. (D) None of above.

73. Anti-Sterility vitamin is :

• (A) Vit B.   (B) Vit C.
• (C) Vit D.  (D) Vi tE.

74. The function of selenium is :

• (A) An enzyme.
• (B) To increase sperm motility.
• (C) Both A and B.
• (D) None of above.

76. In Diphtheria sudden death occurs due to :

• (A) Tachy cardia.
• (B) Atrial Fibrillation.
• (C) Ventricular Fibrillation.
• (D) None of above.

76. Complication of Cholera is :

• (A) Hypokalemia.  (B) Fever.
• (C) Dehydration.  (D) None of above.

77. Kaposi’e sarcoma is associated with :

• (A) Lymphoma. (B) Hepatoma.
• (C) AIDS.  (D) None of above.

78. Kala-Azar is caused by :

• (A) Leishmania.
• (B) Streptococci.
• (C) E.Coli.
• (D) Leishmania Donovani.

79. Kussmaul’s respiration occurs in :

• (A) Respiratory failure. (B) Metabolic Acidosis.
• (C) Cardiac failure. . (D) Headinjury.

80. Leukoplakia is a : -

• (A) Vit deficiency. (B) Thickened Mucous Membrane.
• (C) Cancerous condition. (D) Pro cancerous condition.

81. Duodenal ulcer is more common in Blood Group :

• (A) AB. (B) 0.
• (C) A. (D) B.

82. Virchow’s sign is a feature of:

• (A) Carcinoma stomach. (B) Hepatoma.
• (C) Renal cell carcinoma. (D) Tuberculosis.

83. Cullen’s sign is a feature of:

• (A) Hepatitis. (B) Chronic pancreatitis.
• (C) Acute Pancreatitis. (D) None of above.

84. Acute complication of Diapetes is :

• (A) Coma. (B) Blindness.
• (C) Diabetic Keto Acidosis and Coma.(D) Heart Failure.

85. Non metastatic Endocrine Manifestation of Malignancy is :

• (A) Pruritis. (B) Hypercalcemia.
• (C) Both A and B. (D) None of above.

86. Proximal inter phalangeal joints are affected in :

• (A) Rheumatic fever. (B) Rheumatoid artritis.
• (C) Psoriatoc Arthritis. (D) Osteoarthritis.

87. Erythematous, Photo sensitive, Butterfly Rash affecting the cheeks and nose are Diagnostic to :

• (A) RA. (B) OA.
• (C) SLE. (D) None of the above.

88. Replacement fibrosis of the lung parenchyma occurs in :

• (A) Tuberculosis. (B) Pnumoconiosis.
• (C) Pulmonary oedema. (D) Lung Abscess.

89. Permanent Dialatation and Distortion of Bronchi is called :

• (A) Emphysema. (B) Bronchitis.
• (C) Fibrosis of Lung. (D) Bronchiectasis.

90. Clubbing of the fingers is seen in :

• (A) Tuberculosis. (B) Lung abscess.
• (C) Chronic bronchitis. (D) Punmothorax.

91. Gross enlargement of spleen occurs in :

• (A) Chronic Myeloid leukemia. (B) Chronic Lymphatic Leukemia.
• (C) Acute Lymphatic Leukemia. (D) Anemia.

92. Painless Asymmetrical circumscribed enlargement of lymphnodes of Rubbery consistency is seen in:

• (A) Lymphoma. (B) Tuberculosis.
• (C) Malignancy. (D) Hodgkin’s Lymphoma.

93. Severe Bleeding occurs when the platelet falls below :

• (A) 1 lakh/cmm. (B) 50,000 per cmm.
• (C) 20,000 per cmm. (D) 1.5 lakhs/cmm.

94. Presence of RBC cast in urine is indicative of:

• (A) A/C Glomerulo nephritis. (B) A/C pyeno nephritis.
• (C) Nephrotic Syndrome. (D) Renal failure.

95. Electrical reaction of the affected muscles are not altered in :

• (A) LMN lesion. (B) UMN lesion.
• (C) Cerebellar lesion. (D) Autonomic nervous system lesion.

96. The commonest cause of intracranial haemorrhage is :

• (A) Rupture of aneurysm. (B) Diabetes Mellitus.
• (C) Hypertension. (D) Trauma.

97. Verruca vulgaris is caused by :

• (A) RNA virus. (B) DNA virus.
• (C) Both A and B. (D) Papilloma virus.

98. The commonest form of MND is :

• (A) Amyotrophic Lateral sclerosis. (B) Western Pacific form.
• (C) Progressive Bulbar palsy. (D) Primary Lateral Sclerosis.

99. Bell’s Palsy is a :

• (A) UMN type of facial palsy. (B) LMN type of facial palsy.
• (C) Both UMN and LMN type. (D) None of above.

100. Common psycho somatic respiratory disorder is :

• (A) Bronchitis. (B) Emphysema.
• (C) Bronchial Asthma. (D) Pneumonia.

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Maximum:100marks   Time : 2 hrs only

1. Describe the pituitary gland and its development.
2. Describe the left suprarenal gland and its blood supply. Give its development.
3. Give a brief account of the mediastinal surface of the right lung with the aid. of a diagram.
4. Describe the course, relations and distribution of ulnar nerve in the palm.

5. Write short notes on

•   Female urethra..
•   Blood supply of spinal cord
•   Adductor. magnus.
•   Histology of bone.

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Maximum : 100 marks Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes
C series 146/2005
Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.

1. The time required for the fixation of postmortem staining falls within one of the following ranges: .

• (A) 1 to 4 hours. . (B) 4 to 6 hours.
• (C) 6 to 12 hours. (D) 12 to 18 hours.

2. The most common type of inquest in India is :

• (A) Coroner. (B) Magistrate.
• (C) Procurator Fiscal. (D) Police.

3. The following pesticide produces a garlicky odour of stomach contents :

• (A) Phorate. (B) Paramar.
• (C) Paraquat. (D) Endrin.

4, One of the following statements is NOT true :

• (A) An Additional Sessions Judge can award any ‘punishment authorized by law. ‘
• (B) An Assistant Sessions Judge can award imprisonment for a teem exceeding 10 years.
• (C) Death sentence passed by an Additional Sessions Judge has to be confirmed by the High /Court.
• (D) An Assistant Sessions Judge cannot pass a death sentence.

5. Which of the following produces both physical and psychological dependence ?

• (A) Cocaine. (B) LSD.
• (C) Opium. (D) Marijuana.

6. Foramen ovule in an infant gets closed in one of the following period after birth :

• (A) 1—2 weeks.    (B) 2—4 weeks.
• (C) 1—2 months. (D) 2—3 months.

7. In a court proceedings the judge can ask questions during :

• (A) Examination-in-chief. (B) Cross examination.
• (C) Any stage of the examination. (D) Re-examination.

8. The Central Council of Homeopathy Act was passed in the year :

• (A) 1971. (B) 1972.
• (C) 1973. (D) 1974.

 9. Which of the following beverages contains the maximum percentage of alcohol ?

• (A) Whisky. (B) Brandy.
• (C) Wine. (D) Rum.

10. The venom ofkrait is :

• (A) Myotoxic. (B) Cardiotoxic.
• (C) Haemotoxic. (D) Neurotoxic.

11. Touting means :

• (A) Using agents for procuring patients.
• (B) Splitting of fees received for professional service,
• (C) Assisting unqualified persons in treating patients.
• (D) Association of a doctor with a body of unqualified persons.

12. All the following are features of a dead born child except:

• (A) Spalding’s sign.
• (B) Skin slippage.
• (C) Greenish discolouration of skin.
• (D) Sweetish disagreeable smell.

13. One of the following is NOT a delayed cause of death from injury :

• (A) Tetanus. (B) Eat embolism.
• (C) Thromboembolism. (D) Air embolism.

14. Avulsion is a type of:

• (A) Chop wound. . – (B) Incised wound.
• (C) Laceration. (D) None of the above.

15. In judicial hanging, fracture of vertebral column is usually seen between :

• (A) C1andC2. (B) C2 and C3.
• (C) C4andC5. (D) C5 and C6.

16. Medullary index of hair is used to determine :

• (A) Age. (B) Race.
• (C) Sex. (D) Species.

17. Which one of the following biological fluids is NOT studied for estimating postmortem interval:

• (A) Vitreous humor. (B) Urine.
• (C) CSF. (D) Blood.

18. Finger prints can be permanently altered by:

• (A) Eczema. (B) Leprosy.
• (C) Psoriasis. (D) Scleroderma.

19. Brush burn results from :

• (A) Impact. (B) Graze.
• (C) Pressure. (D) Dry heat

20. Haptic hallucinations are seen in chronic poisoning with :

• (A) Cocaine. (B) Cannabis.
• (C) LSD. (D) Heroin.

21. Poisoning with one of the following produces clinical features similar to viper bite :

• (A) Abrus Precatorius. (B) Ricinus Communis.
• (C) Semecarpus Anacardium. (D) Cerbera thevetia.

22. A First Class Judicial Magistrate can award imprisonment for a maximum period of :

• (A) 3 years. (B) 5 years.
• (C) 7 years. (D) 10 years.

23. A foetus is considered viable during the following month of intrauterine life :

• (A) 5th. (B) 6th.
• (C) 7th. (D) 8th.

24. The section of IPC that define an injury:

• (A) 44. (B) 319.
• (C) 320. (D) 324.

25. The usual postmortem interval required for the appearance of marbling :

• (A) 18 hours. (B) 24 hours.
• (C) 36 hours. (D) 48 hours.

26. Homicidal hanging is also known as :

• (A) Mugging. (B) Lynching.
• (C) Garroting. . (D) Burking.

27. Minimata disease is seen in poisoning with :

• (A) Copper. . (B) Lead.
• (C) Mercury. (D) Antimony.

28. McEwan*s pupil is seen in poisoning with :

• (A) Ethylalcohol. (B) Opium.
• (C) Barbiturates. (D) Chloral Hydrate.

29. Excusable homicide includes :

• (A) Judicial Execution. (B) Homicide Committed by an insane person.
• (C) Infanticide by mother. (D) Death following police firing.

30, The clinical picture of lucid interval is commonly seen in one of the following types of intracranial haemorrhage :

• (A) Subdural. (B) Extradural.
• (C) Intracerebral. (D) Subarachnoid.

31. The commonest type of finger print pattern :

• (A) Loops. (B) Whorls.
• (C) Arches. (D) Composite.

32. The blood is cherry red colour in poisoning with :

• (A) Nitrites. (B) Cyanides.
• (C) Carbon monoxide. (D) Phosphorous.

33. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s technique for age estimation is :

• (A) Attrition. (B) Cementum opposition.
• (C) Root resorption. (D) Root transparency.

34. Delirium tremens is seen in chronic abuse of:

• (A) Alcohol. (B) Cocaine.
• (C) Datura. (D) Heroin.

35. Compressing the neck by the bend of the elbow-is :

• (A) Mugging. (B) Bansdola.
• (C) Burking. (D) Choking.

36. The commonest site of traumatic rupture of intestines is :

• (A) Jejenum. (B) Ileum.
• (C) Duodenum. (D) Caecum.

37. One of the following skeletal indices is used to determine the race of an individual:

• (A) Ischiopubic. (B) Sciatic notch.
• (C) Cephalic. (D) Medullary.

38. All the following injuries amount to Grievous hurt except:

• (A) Permanent privation of sight of either eye.
• (B) Privation of any member or joint.
• (C) Disfiguration of head or face.
• (D) Fracture or dislocation of any bone or tooth.

39. Bluish discolouration of vaginal mucosa in pregnancy is known as :

• (A) GoodelFs sign. (B) Bame’s sign.
• (C) Hegar’s sign. (D) Jacquemier*s sign.

40. Which one of the following is NOT an aggravated form of rape ?

• (A) Gang rape.
• (B) Rape on a pregnant woman.
• (C) Rape on a woman in police custody.
• (D) Rape on a girl below 15 years of age.

41. Of the following causes of impotence in males, which is the commonest one ?

• (A) Diabetes Mellitus. , (B) Large hernias.
• (C) Emotional Disturbances.  (D) Orchitis following Mumps.

42. One of the following types of injury is characteristic of run-over accidents :

• (A) Avulsion. (B) Stretch laceration.
• (C) Patterned Abrasion. (D) Split laceration.

43. The most definite method of identification of an individual is :

• (A) DNA finger printing. (B) Neutron Activation Analysis.
• (C) Cheiloscopy. (D) Dactylography.

44. Hydrocution is due to :

• (A) Electrolyte imbalance. (B) Vagal inhibition.
• (C) Reflex laryngeal spasm. (D) Ventricular fibrillation.

45. All the following are clinical signs of brain stem death except:

• (A) Dilated and fixed pupils.
• (B) Absence of pulse.
• (C) Absence of vestibulo occular reflexes.
• (D) Absence of spontaneous breathing.

46. Quickening is felt by the mother during the following period of pregnancy:

• (A) 10—12 weeks. (B) 12—16 weeks.
• (C) 16—20 weeks. (D) 20—24 weeks.

47. A doctor disclosing the syphilitic condition of his patient to any one concerned is an example of:

• (A) Therapeutic privilege. (B) Ethical negligence.
• (C) Privileged Communication. ‘ (D) Therapeutic Misadventure.

48. One of the following statements regarding MTP Act, 1971 is NOT true :

• (A) Consent of the husband is necessary.
• (B) Termination may be carried out in any maternity hospital.
• (C) Pregnancy may be terminated on grounds of contraceptive failure.
• (D) Above 12 weeks of pregnancy, two doctors have to opine jointly regarding applicability of an indication.

49. Florence test detects the following constituent of semen :

• (A) Spennine. (B) Choline.
• (C) Fructose. (D) Acid phosphatase.

50. Marsh*s test is diagnostic of poisoning with :

• (A) Arsenic. (B) Copper.
• (C) Lead. (D) Mercury.

51. The punishment awarded to a doctor found guilty of professional criminal negligence is :

• (A) Imprisonment for 2 years. (B) Fine.
• (C) Imprisonment for 7 years. (D) 2 years imprisonment and fine.

52. Cheiloscopy is the study of the prints of:

• (A) Foot. (B) Lip-
• (C) Palate. (D) Fingers.

53. The term “whiplash injury” refers to that involving the :

• (A) Spine. (B) Long bones.
• (C) Skull. (D) Rib cage.

54. The central council of Homeopathy Amendment Act was passed in the year :

• (A) 2000. (B) 2001.
• (C) 2002. (D) 2004.

 55. Coroner’s inquest was abolished in India in the year :

• (A) 1998. (B) 1999.
• (C) 2000. (D) 2001.

56. The preservative routinely used for preserving viscera for chemical examination is :

• (A) Normal saline. (B) 10 % Formalin.
• (C) Saturated saline. (D) Formol saline.

57. Ochronosis is seen in poisoning with :

• (A) Nitric acid. (B) Oxalic acid.
• (C) Carbolic acid. (D) Acetic acid.

58. The following documents are exceptions to oral evidence in court except:

• (A) Postmortem reports. (B) Dying declaration.
• (C) Reports of Mint Officers. (D) Chemical Examiner’s reports.

59, One of the following tests is used for the detection of old blood stains :

• (A) Takayana’s test. . (B) Spectroscopy
• (C) Microscopy. (D) Kastle Mayer test.

60. Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding firearm exit wound ?

• (A) Everted margins. (B) Larger than the diameter of the bullet.
• (C) Presence of abrasion collar. (D) Presence of grease collar.

61. The colour of postmortem staining is bright red in poisoning with :

• (A) Carbon monoxide. (B) Phosphorous.
• (C) Cyanides. (D) Carbon dioxide.

62. False sense of perception without an external object is :

• (A) Illusion. (B) Hallucination.
• (C) Phobia. (D) Delusion.

63. The bite of one of the following snakes can produce clinical features similar to crush syndrome :

• (A) Krait. (B) King Cobra.
• (C) Russel’s Viper. (D) Sea Snake.

64, Anteroposterior compression fracture of hyoid bone is seen in :

• (A) Gagging. (B) Throttling.
• (C) Traumatic asphyxia. (D) Hanging.

65. Adipocere formation requires one of the following environmental conditions :—

• (A) Cold and Moist. (B) Warm and Dry.
• (C) Cold and Dry. (D) Warm and Moist.

66. In India, the time limit for exhumation is :

• (A) 5 years. (B) 10 years.
• (C) 20 years. (D) No time limit.

67. One of the following is NOT anantemortem feature of bums :

• (A) Presence of soot in air passages.
• (B) Pugilistic Attitude.
• (C) Cutaneous blisters containing albumen.
• (D) Elevated carboxyhaemoglobin levels.

68. All the following conditions of the husband are indications for Artificial Insemination Donor except: .

• (A) Impotence.(B) Sickle cell disease.
• (C) Sterility (D) Rh incompatibility.

69. The minimum age for giving valid consent for medical examination :

• (A) 10 years. (B) 12 years.
• (C) 14 years. (D) 18 years.

70. Mee’s lines are seen in chronic poisoning with ;

• (A) Lead. (B) Arsenic.
• (C) Copper. (D) Mercury.

71. The most commonly accepted hypothesis of SIDS is :

• (A) Respiratory infection. (B) Sleep Apnoea.
• (C) Hypoganunaglobulinaemia. (D) Cow’s milk allergy.

72. In the Mental Health Act, the term “lunatic” is replaced by :

• (A) Mental patient. (B) Mentally ill patient.
• (C) Mentally disordered patient. (D) Mentally unsound patient.

73. A toxalbumen is produced by one of the following plants :—

• (A) Semacarpus anacardium. (B) Croton Tiglium.
• (C) Plumbago Rosea. (D) Calotropis Gigantea.

74. In case of death in prison, inquest will be conducted by :

• (A) Police. (B) Executive Magistrate.
• (C) Jail Superintendent. (D) Doctor.

75. Fat embolism can be caused by :

• (A) Subclavian vein catheterisation. (B) Caesarean section.
• (C) Fracture of long bones. (D) incised wounds of lower cervical region.

76. Epidemic dropsy is caused by consuming :

• (A) Mushrooms. (B) Lathyrus Sativus.
• (C) Mustard oil. (D) Argemone oil.

77. Which one of the following is NOT a constituent of Universal Antidote ?

• (A) Animal charcoal. (B) Tannie acid.
• (C) Magnesium oxide.  (D) Potassium permanganate.

 78. In secretors, blood group factors can be determined from all of the following except:

• (A) Urine.  (B) CSF.
• (C) Semen. (D) Saliva.

79. Fracture-a-la-signature is a :

• (A) Ring fracture. (B) Depressed fracture.
• (C) Sutural diastasis. (D) Comminuted fractures.

80. The structure which has got minimum molecular life :

• (A) Nervous tissue. (B) Connective tissue.
• (C) Skeletal tissue. (D) Cardiac muscle.

81. Criminal responsibility of an insane is defined in the following section ofIPC :

• (A) 82. (B) 84.
• (C) 85. (D) 87.

82. Burtonian line is seen in chronic poisoning with ;

• (A) Lead. (B) Arsenic.
• (C) Barium. (D) Manganese.

83. All the following .are features of a still born foetus except:

• (A) Born after 28 weeks of pregnancy.
• (B) Was alive in utero.
• (C) Will show signs of maceration.
• (D) Severe moulding of head.

 84. Chapter III of the Central Council of Homeopathy Act deals with :

• (A) Recognition of medical qualifications.’
• (B) Central register.
• (C) Miscellaneous.
• (D) Number of seats allocated in Central Council in each state.

85. The Indian Lunacy Act of 19i2 has been replaced by the Mental Health Act of:

• (A) 1986. . (B), 1987.
• (C) 1988. (D) 1989.

86. Constricted pupils are seen in poisoning with :

• (A) Datura. (B) Cocaine.
• (C) Cannabis. (D) Opium.

87. The “thing or fact that speaks for itself” is legally termed :

• (A) Res judicata. (B) Vis Major.
• (C) Respondent superior. (D) Res ipsa loquitur.

88. All the following are the differential diagnosis of Battered Baby Syndrome except:

• (A) Scurvy. (B) Osteomyelitis.
• (C) Congenital syphilis. (D) Osteogenesis Imperfecta.

89. Punishment for murder is prescribed in one of the following sections of the IPC :

• (A) 302. (B) 304.
• (C) 306. (D) 309V

90. One of the following statements is NOT true regarding dying declaration :

• (A) Oath is not required. •
• (B) Cross examination is allowed.
• (C) A doctor should preferably be present during the recording.
• (D) The statement can be recorded by any person.

91. Incised looking lacerated wounds are :

• (A) Split lacerations. (B) Stretch lacerations.
• (C) Cut lacerations. (D) Tears.

92. The most conclusive evidence of antemortem drowning is the presence of:

• (A) Water in the stomach. (B) Emphysema Aquosum.
• (C) Foreign bodies in air passages. (D) Persistent froth at mouth.

93. Sex of a developing foetus can be determined in the following month ofintrauterine life :

• (A) 3rd. , (B) 4th.
• (C) 5th. (D) 6th

94. Railway spine refers to one of the following types of injury to the spinal cord :

• (A) Confusion (B) Laceration.
• (C) Concussion. (D) Transection.

95. In typical hanging, the position of the knot on the neck is :

• (A) At the nape of the neck.
• (B) Under the chin.
• (C) Anywhere other than the back of neck.
• (D) Just beneath the angle of jaw.

 96, The first permanent tooth to erupt is the :

• (A) Canine. (B) Lateral incisor.
• (C) First molar. . (D) Central Incisor.

97. Statutory rape, is rape on a girl below :

• (A) 10 years. (B) 12 years.
• (C) 15 years. (D) 16 years.

98. The irresistible desire to steal articles is known as :

• (A) Kleptomania. (B) Dipsomania.
• (C) Pyromania. (D) Mutilomania.

99. All the following are true regarding a lacerated wound except:

• (A) Irregular margins. (B) Haemorrhage is more.
• (C) Bruising of margins. (D) Bridging of tissues.

100. A bullet which strikes an intervening object before hitting a target is called :

• (A) Dumdum. (B) Yawing.
• (C) Tandem. (D) Ricochet.

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Question Paper of Kerala Public Service Commission Homoeopathy Tutor in Obstetrics & Gynecology Examinations 2005.
Maximum : 100 marks Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes.
Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.
Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.

1. Asthma during sexual contact is a feature of:

• (A) Ambra grisea. (B) Nat.Mur.
• (C) Sepia.                  (D) Kreosotum.

2. Which medicine have inflammation of ovaries during childhood :

• (A) Aconite.   (B) Apis.
• (C) Pulsatilla. (D) Rhustox.

3. Leucorrhoea like curds, white of an egg is a feature of:

• (A) Mercusius. (B) Borax.
• (C) Calc.Carb. (D) Sepia.

4. Atrophy of breast with absence of menses is a feature of:

• (A) Daminana. (B) Pituitrin.
• (C) lodum.        (D) Onosmodium.

5. Absence of menses due to Jaundice is a features of:

• (A) Chelidonium. (B) Chionanthus.
• (C) Bryonia.           (D) Nux. V.

6. Blood from vagina every time the child takes breast:

• (A) Puts.                     (B) Silicea.
• (C) Medorrhinum. (D) Bryonia.

7. Which medicine have abortion due to mental strain :

• (A) Gels.                (B) Sabina.
• (C) Secale care. (D) Auram Mur.

8. Which medicine is good for sterility due to Alrophy of ovaries :

• (A) Kali Bromatum. (B) lodum.
• (C) Sepia. (D) Xanthoxylum.

9. Good remedy for Fibroid in fundal reagion of uterus :

• (A) Calc. Carb, (B) Silicea.
• (C) Pulsatila. (D) Kaliiodatum.

10. Menses bleeding only during day time :

• (A) Mag carb- (B) Bovista.
• (C) Bryonia. (D) Nux vomica.

11. The normal chromosomal pattern in female is :

• (A) 46, XX. . (B) 46, XY.
• (C) 48, XX. (D) 48, XY.

12. The chromosomal pattern of Turner’s syndrome is :

• (A) 46, XY. . (B) 46, XX.
• (C) 45,X. (D) 69, XXX.

13. Turner’s syndrome is characterised by : o

• (A) Streak gonad. (B) Normal ovary.
• (C) Ovotestis. (D) Testis.

14. The clinical features of Turner’s syndrome are the following except:

• (A) Webbed neck. (B) Flat chest.
• (C) Cubitus valgus. (D) Normal breasts.

15. The chromosomal pattern of Rokitansky syndrome is:

• (A) 46,XY. (B) 46,XX.
• (C) 45,X. , (D) 47.XXY.

16. The clinical features of Rokitansky syndrome are the following except:

• (A) Primary amenorrhoea. (B) Well developed Secondary Sexual Characters.
• (C) Absent vagina and uterus. (D) Present vagina and uterus.

17. The uterus is developed from :

• (A) The pronephric ducts. (B) The mesonephric ducts.
• (C) The Mullerian ducts. (D) The urogenital sinus.

18. The septate uterus is formed as a result of:

• (A) Fusion of Mullerian ducts, (B) Incomplete fusion of the ducts.
• (C) Noncanalisationof the ducts. (D) Nonresorption of the median septum.

19. The secondary sexual character first to appear is :

• (A) The pubic hair. , (B) The breasts.
• (C) The axillary hair. (Q) Any of the above.

20. The usual age of menarche is :

• (A) 10 yrs. (B) 13-14 yrs.
• (C) 16-18 yrs. (D) 20 yrs.

21. The gonadotropic hormones are secreted by the pituitary :

• (A) Acidophil cells. (B) Basophil cells
• (C) Chromophobe cells. (D) Any of the above.

22. LH causes :

• (A) Ovarian steroidogenesis.
• (B) Ovulation.
• (C) Luteinisation of granulosa and theca cells.
• (D) All of the above.

23. Second meiotic division of ovum occurs during :

• (A) Embryonic life. (B) Follicular phase.
• (C) Ovulation. (D) Fertilisation.

24. Normal mature ovum is :

• (A) Diploid. (B) tiapload.
• (C) Triploid. (D) Tetraploid.

26. Estrogen causes :

•  (A) Development of breasts.
• (B) Proliferative changes in the endometrium.
• (C) Deposition of glycogen in the vaginal epithelium.
• (D) All of the above.

26. The average duration of menstrual cycle is :

• (A) 18 days. (B) 28 days.
• (C) 38 days. (D) 42 days.

27. Ovulation occurs usually :

• (A) 14 days prior to the succeeding cycle.
• (B) 14 days after the menstruation.
• (C) 7 days after the onset period.
• (D) at the middle of the cycle.

28. The earliest symptom of pregnancy in a regularly menstruating women is :

• (A) Missing the period. (B) Morning sickness.
• (C) Enlargement of abdomen. (D) Pica.

29. The most sensitive pregnancy test is :

• (A) Latex agglutination inhibition test for beta HCG.
• (B) Direct latext agglutination test for beta HCG.
• (C) Membrane ELISA.
• (D) Radio receptor assay.

30. The best method of diagnosis of viable pregnancy is :

• (A) Urine pregnancy test, (B) Blood beta HGG.
• (C) Ultrasonography. (D) Clinical examination.

31. The precise method estimation gestational age during the first trimester is by measuring the :

• (A) Gestation sac. (B) Crown-rump length.
• (C) Biparietal diameter. (D) Femur length.

32. Conjoined twin may result from :

• (A) Division of zygote. (B) Division of blastocyst.
• (C) Division of morula. (D) Incomplete division of embryonic disc.

33. The diagnostic features of ectopic pregnancy are the following except:

• (A) Positive pregnancy test. (B) Adnexal mass.
• (C) Fluid in the Douglas pouch. (D) Double ring intrauterine sac.

34. The clinical features of threatened abortion include the following except:

• (A) Vaginal bleeding.
• (B) Closed cervical os.
• (C) Size of uterus corresponding the period of amenorrhoea.
• (D) Size of uterus less than the period of amenorrhoea.

35. The fetal component of placenta is :

• (A) Chorion leave. (B) Chorion frontosum.
• (C) Decidua capsularis. (D) Decidua basalis.

36. In the.intervillous space the maternal blood is separated from the fetal by the following except:

• (A) The fetal endothelium. (B) The villous connective tissue.
• (C) The trophoblasts. (D) The maternal endothelium.

37. Oxygen is transported to the fetal blood by :

• (A) Diffusion. (B) Facilitation.
• (C) Pinocytosis. (D) Active transfer.

38. Routine antenatal check up shall be at an interval of:

• (A) 4 wks till 28 wks. (B) 2 wks till 36 wks.
• (C) 1 wk till 40 wks. (D) All of the above.

39. All antenatal women should have their blood tested for :

• (A) ABO and Eh group. (B) STD.
• (C) Sugar. (D) All of the above.

40. Sonographic features of complete mole are the following except:

• (A) Honey comb appearance. (B) Absent fetal parts.
• (C) Absent fetal heart. (D) Presence of normal placental tissue.

41. Incomplete abortion is diagnosed if:

• (A) The cervical os is open.
• (B) Products of conception are felt in the uterus.
• (C) Uterus is less than the period of amenorrhoea.
• (D) All of the above are present.

42. Incomplete abortion should be :

• (A) Observed. ‘ (B) Treated medically.
• (C) Completed surgically. (D) Managed by any of the above method.

43. Normal female pelvis is : .

• (A) Android. (B) Anthrapoid.
• (C) Gynecoid. ‘ (D) Platypelloid.

44. The shortest diameter in the plane of least pelvic dimension is :

• (A) Transverse. (B) Anteroposterior.
• (C) Posterior sagittal. (D) Oblique.

45. Type of pelvis predisposed to occipitoposterior position is:

• (A) Gynecoid. (B) Anthrapoid-
• (C) Platypelloid. (D) Mixed.

46. Normal presentation is:

• (A) Vertex. (B) Face.
• (C) Brow. . (D) Breech.

47. Engaging diameter of vertex presentation

• (A) Verticomental. (B) Suboccipito bregmatic.
• (C) Submentobregmatic. (D) Bisilliac.

43. Onset of labour is suspected by :

• (A) Irregular uterine contractions- (B) Rupture of membranes.
• (C) Vaginal bleeding. (D) Regular painful uterine contractions.

49. Progress of labour is assessed by :

• (A) Intensity of uterine contractions. (B) Dilatation of cervix.
• (C) Descent of presenting part. (D) Allot the above.

60. First stage of labour lasts from the onset of true labour pains to

• (A) Rupture of membranes, (B) Expulsion of fetus.
• (C) Expulsion of placenta. (D) Full dilatation of cervix

61. The last menses period is dated from:

• (A) First day of the last normal period.
• (B) Last day of the last normal period.
• (C) First day of the last bleeding episode.
• (D) Last day of the last bleeding episode.

62. Breast examination is done in the :

• (A) Supine position. (B) Sitting position.
• (C) Both A and B. (D) None of the above.

63. The genital system develops from which embryonic structure :

• (A) Ectoderm. (B) Mesoderm.
• (C) Endoderm. (D) Embryonic plate.

54. Which part of ovary comes to contain the developing Follicles :

• (A) Cortex. (B) Medulla.
• (C) BothA+B. (D) None of these.

55. Which of the following does not form from urogenital sinus ?

• (A) Urethra. (B) Hymen.
• (C) Epithelicum of urinary bladder. (D) Rectum.

56. The Fallopiean Tube is derived from:

• (A) Wolffianduct. (B) Meta nepnricdU(|t.
• (C) Mullerian duct. (D) Uro genital sinus

57. Arrest of Foetal descent occurs commonly at the plane of:

• (A) Pelvic inlet. (B) Greatest diameter.
• (C) Least diameter . (D) Pelvic outlet.

58. The portion of the broad ligament between the Ovaries and Fallopean tube is

• (A) Round ligament. (B) Ligament of Jocob’s.
• (C) Cardinal ligament. (D) Meso salpinx.

59. Streak ovary is associated with:

• (A) Klinefelter’s syndrome. (B) Asherman’s syndrome.
• (C) Osteoeniais imperfecta. (D) Turner’s syndrome.

60. The level of the alpha foeta protein is normal in amniotic fluid in which of the following condition:

• (A) Spina bifida. (B) Anencephaly.
• (C) Oesophagal atresia. (D) Post Maturity.

61. Ptyalism is caused by :

• (A) Excess production of saliva.
• (B) Excess production of gastric acid.
• (C) Inability of the patient to swallow normal amount.
• (D) Allergic reactions to various food during pregnancy.

62. A positive pregnancy test may be associated with :

• (A) Spontaneous abortion. (B) Intra uterine pregnancy.
• (C) Ectopic Pregnancy. (D) All of the above.

63. Most common foetal lie found during early pregnancy is :

• (A) Oblique. (B) Transverse.
• (C) Vertex. (D) Longitudinal.

64. Older gravidas have an increased incidence of:

• (A) Ut. inertia. (B) Mal prsentation.
• (C) Hypertension. (D) Allot the above.

65. Meconium aspiration syndrome is associated with :

• (A) Prolonged labour. (B) Post dated pregnancy.
• (C) I.U.G.R. (D) All of the above.

66. Mastitis followed by breast abscess in most frequently due to:

• (A) Bacterial vaginosis. (B) Pneumococcus.
• (C) Esch erichia coli. (D) Staphylococcus.

67. Most common cause of PPH is :

• (A) Ut. Laceration. (B) Ut.atony.
• (C) Cervical Laceration. (D) Vaginal Laceration.

68. All of the following are factors which Predisposes to post partum infection except:

• (A) Maternal obesity.
• (B) Anaemia.
• (C) Premature rupture of membranes.
• (D) Post dated Pregnancy.

69. Pregnancies with severely affected Rh immunized foetus may be complicated by :

• (A) Poly hydramnios. (B) Foetal hydrops.
• (C) Foetal cardiae failure. (D) All of the above.

70. Complication for an Rh positive foetus with an Rh negative mother will usually first appear inwhich pregnancy :

• (A) First. (B) Second.
• (C) Third. (D) Fourth.

71. Which location of Leomyomata is most associated with spontaneous abortion :

• (A) Subserosal. (B) Submucosal.
• (C) Intramural. (D) Pedunculated.

72. Asherman’s syndrome is best diagnosed by which of the following :

• (A) History. (B) Physical examination.
• (C) Hysteroscopy. (D) Ultra Sound.

73. All of the following medical condition are associated with an increased risk of First trimester abortion except:

• (A) Diabetes. (B) Luteal phase inadequacy.
• (C) Hyperthyroidism. (D) Hypothyroidism.

74. The Ph of urine on pregnancy as compared with a non pregnant state is :

• (A) Increased. (B) The same; .
• (C) Decreased. (D) Dependent on gestational age.

75. The risk of congenital rubella syndrome is greatest if infection occurs in:

• (A) First trimester. (B) Second trimester.
• (C) Third trimester. (D) Before pregnancy.

76. What is the most likely diagnosis of a patient who presents with hypertension in the twelfth week of Pregnancy :

• (A) P.E.T.
• (B) Eclampsia
• (C) C/C hypertension (Pre eclampsic toaxemia)
• (D) Hyper thyroidism.

77. Intra pastum management of twin pregnancy at term is usually determined by :

• (A) Gestational age. (B) Presentation of twins.
• (C) Local custom. (D) Size of twins.

78. Couvelaire uterus is associated with :

• (A) Placenta previa. (B) Abruptio placenta.
• (C) Vasapraevia. o (D) All of the above.

79. Which of the following are common to both placenta praevia and abruptio placenta

• (A) Vaginal bleeding, i (B) Abdominal discomfort.
• (C) Painful ut. contraction. (D) Presence of normal foetal heartds.

80. Which of the following sexually transmitted disease is associated with a purulent haemorolagic secretion:

• (A) Granuloma inguinale. (B) Lympho granuloma venesum.
• (C) Chancroid. (D) Syphilis.

81. Which of the following structures does not provide direct support to the pelvic organs :

• (A) Pelvic muscles. (B) Fascia.
• (C) Boiayptiyis.  (D) Ligaments.

82. Small bowel herniation is found in :

• (A) Rectocle, (B) Cystocele.
• (C) Urethrocele. (0) Enterocele.

83. Which of the following is not a manifestation of pelvic relaxation :

• (A) Uterine prolapse. (B) Procidentia.
• (C) Vault prolapse. (D) Uterine retroversion.

84. In women most urinary tract infection happens through :

• (A) Haematogenous spread.
• (B) Lymphatic spread.
• (C) Ascending urethral contamination.
• (D) Retained urine.

85. What is the normal effect of progestrone on ureters in Pregnancy :

• (A) There is more dilation of the left ureter than of the right.
• (B) There is more dilation of the ureter.
• (C) Both ureters dilate equally.
• (D) Both ureters constrict equally.

86. The common cause of foetal tachy cardia :

• (A) Foetal anaemia. (B) Maternal anaemia.
• (C) Maternal’hyperthermia. (D) Maternal Hypothermia.

87. Foetal sleep is associated with what change in foetal heart rate.

• (A) Increased. o (B) Unchanged.
• (C) Decreased. (D) Both A and C

88-. The diagnosis of endometriosis is suspected on the basis of:

• (A) Culture and sensitivity. (B) Histology.
• (C) Typical history. (D) Family history.

89. What type of abnormal  bleeding is associated with endometrioais :

• (A) Menorrhagia. (B) Anovulatory bleeding.
• (C) Amenorrhoea. (D) Hypermenrrhoea.

90. Nipple discharge associated with Burning, itching or nipple discomfort in older patients is suggestive of:

• (A) Intra ductal papilloma. (B), Fibroadenoma.
• (C) Ductal ectasia. (D) Papillary Carcinoma.

91. Which Medicine shows delayed labour in second stage due to uterine inertia :

• (A) Pitutarin. (B) Caulophyllum
• (C) Cuprammet. (D) Pulsattila

92. Nipples cracked and ragged extreme sensitive cannot bear to touch this symptom peculiar to :

• (A) Silicea. (B) Castor equi.
• (C) Sarasaparilla. (D) Graphitis.

93. Vomitting of Pregnancy in women have the colour of dark olive green is a feature of:

• (A) Carbolic acid. (B) Cerium oxalicum.
• (C) Sepia. (D) Symphoricarpus.

94. Which medicine is more suitable for habitual abortion :

• (A) Sabina. (B) Vibrunam.
• (C) Sepia. (D) Pulsatila.

95. Which medicine shows retension of urine with Albiminuria :

• (A) Cantharis. (B) Terebinth.
• (C) Apis. (D) Helonlas.

96. Which medicine have aversion for bread during pregnancy :

• (A) Sepia.  (B) Lycopodium.
• (C) Colchicum. (D) Arsalb.

97. Reflex cough of pregnant women is a feature of:

• (A) Kali Bromatum. (B) KaliSich.
• (C) Causticum. (D) Conium.

98. Madness during pregnancy is found in one of the following medicine :

• (A) Stramonium. (B) NuxMos.
• (C) Cicuta. (D) Actea Racemosa.

99. Toothache in Pregnancy is relieved by keeping cold water

• (A) Coeffea. (B) Kreosotum.
• (C) Pulsatila. (D) Chamomula.

100. Leucorrhoea, Profuse watery during pregnancy at night:

• (A) Alumina.        (B) Syphillinum.
• (C) Both A and B. (D) None of the above.

Download answer key : www.similima.com/pdf/kpsc-tutor-obg.pdf

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Dr Jithesh T K  MD (Hom) Materia medica
Medical officer (Homoeopathy)
Directorate of Indian System of Medicine & Homoeopathy, Govt of N.C.T of Delhi
Email: drjitheshtk@yahoo.co.in  

Dr.Jithesh.T.K has compiled this Model Question Paper in Materia medica for the aspirants appearing for the UPSC / PSC Medical officer examinations. The author is a postgraduate in Materia medica from the Govt Homoeopathic Medical College, Calicut. He has qualified the UPSC examination and is presently working as a medical officer in the Directorate of ISM&H, Govt of N.C.T of Delhi. He is also a top rank holder in the Medical officer (Homoeopathy) examination, Kerala-2004.

The model questions in Materia medica have been framed according to the UPSC pattern. Since maximum number of questions (30-35 questions out of 120) are asked from Materia medica in the UPSC examination, it is necessary that the aspirants should give due importance for the study of Materia medica. This Model Question paper will open a pathway for the preparation in the study of Materia medica. Send your comments to drjitheshtk@yahoo.co.in

1.Chemical analogue of Ipecac is

• (a) Ant tart
• (b) Cup met
• (c) Stann met
• (d) Plumb met

2.According to J.T.Kent “Escape of gas when urinating” is found only under this medicine

• (a) Staphysagria (a) Lycopodium (c) Sarsaparilla (d) Sanicula

3.The symptom,“Sensation as if breath would leave her when lying down”is seen in

• (a) Grindelia
• (b) Medorrhinum
• (c) Opium
• (d) Both a & c

4.”Sore throat beginning and ending with menses” is the symptom of

• (a) Lac can
• (b) Phytolacca
• (c) Merc cyanatus
• (d) All of the above

5. Match the following

• (A) Suffering parts emaciate      (1) Tabacum
• (B) Emaciation of cheeks & back (2) Lobelia inflata
• (C) Nervous prostration             (3) Graphites
• (D) Inclined to be fleshy            (4) Picric acid

• (a) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
• (b) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
• (c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
• (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

6. “Sensation as if cold air was blowing on her, even while covered up; as if sheets were damp”,the medicine is

• (a) Nux mosch (b)Lac defloratum (c)Veratrum album (d)Camphor

7. Who is the prover of Kalmia

• (a) Hahnemann (b) Hering (c) Burt (d) Petroz

8. Vegetable analogue of Kali sulph is

• (a) Pulsatilla (b) Phytolacca (c) Dulcamara (d) Podophyllum

9. Thirst of Sarsaparilla is

• (a) Thirst for very cold drinks
• (b) Thirstless
• (c) Thirst only during chill stage
• (d) Thirst for hot drinks

10. Vertigo on descending is seen in

• (a) Ferr met
• (b) Ferr met & Borax
• (c) Borax and Coca
• (d) Ferr met, Borax & Coca

11. Complementary medicine of Ferr met is

• (a) Alumina
• (b) China
• (c) Hamamelis
• (d) All of the above

12. “Must change position frequently, but it is painful and gives little relief” this symptom is seen in

• (a) Nat sulph
• (b) Causticum
• (c) Both
• (d) None

13. Which among the following medicine is not having “Hydrogenoid constitution”

• (a) Ferr met (b) Antim tart (c) Sabina (d) Silicea

14. “Retention and incontinence of urine after labour” ,this symptom is seen in

• (a) Belladonna (b) Arnica (c) Apis mel (d) Cimicifuga

15. According to Lippe “persistent diarrhoea in those treated with large doses of the drug” is seen in

• (a) Camphor (b) Nux vom (c) Teucrium (d) Opium

16. Scientific name of “Aswagandha” is

• (a) Withania somnifera
• (b) Tinospora cordifolia
• (c) Alstonia scholaris
• (d) Boerhavia diffusa

17. Which among the following medicine comes under “Lichens”

• (a) Cetraria islandica
• (b) Sticta pulmonalis
• (c) Usnea barbata
• (d) All of the above

18. Match the following

• (A) Black widow spider    (1) Tarentula cubensis
• (B) Black Cuban spider    (2) Aranea diadema
• (C) Hairy spider              (3) Latrodectus mactans
• (D) Garden spider           (4) Mygale lasiodora

• (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
• (b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
• (c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
• (d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

19. Which among the following is not a “Sarcode”

• (a) Cholesterinum
• (b) Fel tauri
• (c) Vulpis fel
• (d) Glanderin

20. “After hemorrhage from piles prostration out of all proportion to amount of blood lost” medicine is

• (a) Trill pendulum
• (b) Melilotus alba
• (c) Hamamelis
• (d) Erigeron

21. Which among the following medicine is not a member of “Ranunculaceae”

• (a) Helleborus
• (b) Paeonia
• (c) Hepatica
• (d) Hydrocotyle

22. “Prolapse of uterus, many cases of years standing cured” medicine is

• (a) Lac defloratum
• (b) Syphylinum
• (c) Lyssin
• (d) Medorhinum

23. “Every spring skin affections reappear” medicine is

• (a) Alumina
• (b) Nat sulph
• (c) Ant crude
• (d) Croton tig

24. Which medicine is indicated for obstinate cases of constipation after Nux vom has failed

• (a) Alumina
• (b) Sulphur
• (c) Plumb met
• (d) Platina

25.What is common between “Rhubarb” and “Yellow dock”

• (a) They are complementary to each other
• (b) They belongs to the same family
• (c) Both are children’s remedies
• (d) Both have got symptom, colic < when standing, not > by stool

26. Which medicine is indicated for “Headache from too much thinking, too close application or attention, from worms”

• (a) Cina
• (b) Terebinth
• (c) Physostigma
• (d) Sabadilla

27. Complementary drug of Stann met is

• (a) Calc carb
• (b) Ipecac
• (c) Pulsatilla
• (d) Cinchona

28. “Painless diarrhoea after midnight” – indicated medicine is

• (a) Sulphur
• (b) Podophyllum
• (c) Pulsatilla
• (d) Phos acid

29. Painless diarrhoea from fear is seen in

• (a) Opium
• (b) Sambucus
• (c) Aconite
• (d) Phos acid

30. Which medicine is indicated for the ailments from the abuse of metals generally?

• (a) Pulsatilla
• (b) Sulphur
• (c) Mezerium
• (d) Opium

31. Name the nosode prepared from the fibroid tumour of uterus

• (a) Melitagrinum
• (b) Epihysterinum
• (c) Nectrianinum
• (d) Scirrhinum

32. Eupionum is

• (a) A product of wood tar distillation
• (b) A product of pine tar distillation
• (c) Crude rock oil
• (d) A fossil product

33.Menses of Nux vomica is

• (a) Too late, dark, clotted, intermittent
• (b) Profuse, dark, coagulated, offensive with backache
• (c) Too early, always irregular, blood black
• (d) Profuse, bright, discharge of blood between periods

34. “Chill beginning in thighs” is seen in

• (a) Pyrogen
• (b) Gelsemium
• (c) Heloderma
• (d) Thuja

35. “Flooding with fainting” is seen in

• (a) Trill pendulum
• (b) Amyl nitrosum
• (c) Nux mosch
• (d) Melilotus alba

36. Trill pendulum is complimentary to which medicine in menstrual and hemorrhagic affections

• (a) Phosphorus
• (b) Calc phos
• (c) Sabina
• (d) Ferr phos

37. “Absence of grit” is seen in

• (a) Adrenalin
• (b) Thyroidinum
• (c) X ray
• (d) Bacillinum

38. “Single cough on rising from bed in morning” is seen in

• (a) Causticum
• (b) Lachesis
• (c) Bacillinum
• (d) Badiaga

39.Who is the prover of Kali bich

• (a) Hahnemann (b) Hering (c) Drysdale (d) Swan

40. Inimical medicine of Ignatia is

• (a) Tabacum
• (b) Opium
• (c) Nat mur
• (d) Chamomilla

41. According to Swan “almost a specific for gall stone colic, relieves the distress at once especially after failure with Nux vom, Cinchona, Carduus, Podophyllum etc.

• (a) Fel tauri
• (b) Cholesterinum
• (c) Chionathus
• (d) Pulmo vulpis

42. “Child constantly handles the penis” is the symptom of

• (a) Mezerium
• (b) Origanum
• (c) Psorinum
• (d) Malandrium

43. Which medicine is indicated in scrofulosis when the best chosen remedies fails to relieve

• (a) Theridion
• (b) Tarentula cubensis
• (c) Iodum
• (d) Ars iodide

44. Nausea from fast riding in a carriage is seen in

• (a) Tabacum
• (b) Lactic acid
• (c) Cerium oxalicum
• (d) Theridion

45. Which medicine has got aversion to milk and dirrhoea from it

• (a) Nat phos
• (b) Nat carb
• (c) Nat sulph
• (d) Nat mur

46. Match the following

• (A) Forgets initial letters while writing           (1) Nux mosch
• (B) Omits final letters while writing                (2) Syphilinum
• (C) Does not recognize well known streets     (3) Medorhinum
• (D) Can not remember names of books persons (4) Lac can

• (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
• (b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
• (c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
• (d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

47. “Fat, chubby, short necked children disposed to croup and croupy affections” – medicine is

• (a) Calc carb
• (b) Medorhinum
• (c) Kali bich
• (d) Baryta carb

48. “Thirsty and hungry yet as soon as they begin to eat or drink they lose all desire” – medicine is

• (a) Calc carb
• (b) Helonius
• (c) Petroselinum
• (d) Sarsaparilla

49. Neuralgia everyday at the same hour is seen in

• (a) Chin sulph
• (b) Sanguinaria
• (c) Oxalic acid
• (d) Spigelia

50. “Prolapse of uterus, seemingly in hot weather” is seen in

• (a) Nux mosch
• (b) Belladonna
• (c) Kali bich
• (d) Nat mur

51.Find out the medicine from the following symptoms

• Ailments from cutting wisdom teeth
• Craving for meat
• Diarrhea occurs regularly every three weeks
• Heart-burn of pregnancy
• (a) Calc phos
• (b) Mag carb
• (c) Chamomilla
• (d) Cheiranthus

52. “Loves fat and salt” is the symptom of

• (a) Sepia
• (b) Phosphorus
• (c) Nat mur
• (d) Nitric acid

53. “Eating a little too much causes headache” in

• (a) Allium cepa
• (b) Antim crud
• (c) Nux mosch
• (d) Nux vom

54. Who is the prover of Anthracinum

• (a) Lux
• (b) Swan
• (c) Finke
• (d) Burt

55. Which among the following is a medicine proved by Dr.Hahnemann

• (a) Iodum
• (b) Cocculus
• (c) Hamamelis
• (d) Ledum pal

56. Complimentary medicine of Camphor

• (a) Nux vom
• (b) Cantharis
• (c) Coffea
• (d) Cinchona

57. Inimical medicine of Zinc met

• (a) Ignatia
• (b) Sepia
• (c) Chamomilla
• (d) Camphor

58. Which among the following is a medicine for fissures of nipples in nursing women

• (a) Sedum acre
• (b) Ratanhia
• (c) Aesculus
• (d) Peonia

59. Complementary drug of Sabadilla is

• (a) Arum tryphyllum
• (b) Amm carb
• (c) Sang can
• (d) Sepia

60. Which medicine follows well after Opium after bad effects of fright

• (a) Sambucus nigra
• (b) Syphylinum
• (c) Strammonium
• (d) Staphysagria

61. “Worms with foul breath, choking” – medicine is

• (a) Aur met
• (b) Sabadilla
• (c) Felix mas
• (d) Terebinth

62. According the J.H.Clarke, which medicine follows Zinc met in hydrococephalus

• (a) Calc phos
• (b) Merc sulph
• (c) Helleborus
• (d) Kali sulph

63. “Palpitation, tobacco-heart and sexual weakness after abuse of tobacco is seen in

• (a) Lycopodium
• (b) Phosphorus
• (c) Gelsemium
• (d) Staphysagria

64. Dandelion is the common name of

• (a) Dolichos
• (b) Sambucus
• (c) Taraxacum
• (d) Cyclamen

65. “All gone sensation in stomach, in tea drinkers especially” is the symptom of

• (a) Thuja
• (b) Pulsatilla
• (c) Angustra
• (d) Sepia

66. “Sweating of foot between the toes, making them sore and offensive” is seen in

• (a) Sanicula
• (b) Bar carb
• (c) Nat mur
• (d) Jaborandi

67.Which medicine has got the symptom “Pulse more rapid in the morning than in the evening”

• (a) Ver vir
• (b) Sulphur
• (c) Psorinum
• (d) Digitalis

68. Medicine for Day blindness is

• (a) Ran bulb
• (b) Ruta
• (c) Phosphorus
• (d) Hedeoma

69. Thyroidinum is prepared from dried thyroid gland of which animal

• (a) Pig
• (b) Horse
• (c) Sheep
• (d) Mice

70. “Thirst for very cold drinks” is seen in which magnesia group medicine

• (a) Mag carb
• (b) Mag phos
• (c) Mag mur
• (d) Mag sulph

71. “Dreams of accidents” is seen in

• (a) Lycopodium
• (b) Medorhinum
• (c) Phosphorus
• (d) Nat mur

72. Which medicine is useful for “Tea-tasters cough” due to inhaling the fungus?

• (a) Bacillinum
• (b) Lobelia inflata
• (c) Iodum
• (d) Kali iodide

73. “Toothache worse from drinking coffee and smoking” is seen in

• (a) Tarentula hisp
• (b) Ignatia
• (c) Staphysagria
• (d) Kreosortum

74. Medicine useful for so called three months colic, especially if it recurs at regular hours, much rumbling in the abdomen

• (a) Dioscorea
• (b) Elaterium
• (c) Illicium
• (d) Gambogia

75. “Anxiety when quiet” is the symptom of

• (a) Iodum
• (b) Sulphur
• (c) Thyroidinum
• (d) Badiaga

76. Medicine for “clubbing of fingers” is

• (a) Laurocerasus
• (b) Naja
• (c) Adonis vernalis
• (d) Sumbul

77. “Oily pellicle on the surface of urine” is seen in

• (a) Adonis vernalis
• (b) Iberis
• (c) Strophanthus
• (d) Both a&b are correct

78. Which medicine arrests flow of milk after weaning

• (a) Ricinus communis
• (b) Asafoetida
• (c) Urtica urens
• (d) All of the above

79. Urine smells of violets is seen in

• (a) Thyroidinum
• (b) Bacillinum
• (c) Medorhinum
• (d) Syphylinum

80. According to W.Boericke, what is the dosage of passiflora in asthma

• (a) 5 – 10gtt every 10 minutes
• (b) 10 – 30gtt every ten minutes
• (c) 10 – 15gtt every half an hour
• (d) 30 – 60gtt every hour

81. When was the last volume (6th) of Dr.Samuel Hahnemann’s Materia medica pura published?

• (a) 1811
• (b) 1818
• (c) 1821
• (d) 1830

82. Which among the following medicines do not belong to the “Carbon family”

• 1. Kreosotum
• 2. Benzene
• 3. Icthyolum
• 4. Borax
• 5. Causticum

• (a) 2 & 4
• (b) 3 & 5
• (c) 4 & 5
• (d) None of the above

83. Which among the following statements is wrong

• 1. Carbo veg and Drosera are complementary medicines
• 2. Kreosotum follows well after Carbo veg
• 3. Carbo veg and Carbo animalis are inimicals
• 4. Kali carb is the complementary drug of Carbo veg

• (a) 1
• (b) 2
• (c) 1 & 2
• (d) None of the above

84. “Blue flag” is the common name of

• (a) Iris versicolor
• (b) Cimicifuga
• (c) Caulophyllum
• (d) Trill pendulum

85. Nux vomica seeds contain traces of one metal which is responsible for the cramps – name the metal

• (a) Magnesium
• (b) Lead
• (c) Copper
• (d) Zinc

86. According to Hahnemann which one is the only medicine that in its primary action does not produce a single pain

• (a) Strammonium
• (b) Opium
• (c) Valeriana
• (d) Ignatia

87. “Sulphur is the only warm drug that craves fat” whose statement is this

• (a) W.Boericke
• (b) E.B.Nash
• (c) M.L.Tyler
• (d) C.Hering

88. “Rolling from side to side relieve the distress” is seen in

• (a) Tarentula hispania
• (b) Carcinosin
• (c) Tuberculinum
• (d) Radium bromide

89. During sweat cannot tolerate any covering – is seen in

• (a) Arg nit
• (b) Zinc met
• (c) Camphor
• (d) Thuja

90. Which medicine has got constipation after serious illness, especially enteric fevers

• (a) Mag mur
• (b) Amm mur
• (c) Selenium
• (d) Lac defloratum

91. Which among the following is not a member of Liliaceae

• (a) Sabadilla
• (b) Sambucus
• (c) Squilla
• (d) Aloes

92. Complementary medicine of Psorinum is

• (a) Sulphur
• (b) Tuberculinum
• (c) Bacillinum
• (d) All of the above

93. Headache from worms is seen in

• (a) Teucrium
• (b) Psorinum
• (c) Scirhinum
• (d) Sabadilla

94. Find out the medicine from following symptoms

• Right sided headache < talking, eating
• Ciliary neuralgia after operation, especially after removal of eyeball
• Enlargement of testicles
• Gastric ulcer with much burning

• (a) Mezerium
• (b) Rhododendron
• (c) Ruta
• (d) Kali bich

95.“Dreams as If she is drinking” is seen in

• (a) Medorhinum
• (b) Medorhinum and Phoshorus
• (c) Medorhinum, Phosphorus and Nat mur
• (d) Medorhinum, Phosphorus, Nat mur and Selenium

96. Sanguinaria canadensis belongs to the family

• (a) Papaveraceae
• (b) Ranunculaceae
• (c) Compositae
• (d) Caprifoliaceae

97. Medicine for “Night blindness”

• (a) Ran bulb
• (b) Bothrops
• (c) Physostigma
• (d) Ruta

98. “Hearing difficult especially to human voice” is seen in

• (a) Nit acid
• (b) Causticum
• (c) Merc dulsis
• (d) Phosphorus

99. Which medicine is indicated for somnambulism?

• (a) Pulsatilla
• (b) Thuja
• (c) Silicea
• (d) Medorhinum

100. “Can see objects only when looking at them sideways” is seen in

• (a) Oleander
• (b) Aur met
• (c) Lith carb
• (d) Phosphorus

Directions:
The following six items consist of two statements, one labeled as “Assertion A” and the other labeled as “Reason R”. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly:
Codes:

• (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
• (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
• (c) A is true but R is false
• (d) A is false but R is true

101. Assertion (A): Calc phos is the complimentary drug of Carbo animalis
Reason (R): Carbo animalis contains Calcium phosphate

102. Assertion (A): Cimicifuga and Helleborus niger belongs to the same family
Reason (R): Cimicifuga and Helleborus niger are inimical to each other

103. Assertion (A): Dr.Hering proved both Lachesis and Naja tripudians
Reason(R): Lachesis and Naja belongs to the Ophidia family

104. Assertion (A): Allen’s Keynotes contains 168 medicines
Reason (R): Allen’s Keynotes is based entirely on Hering’s Guiding Symptoms

105. Assertion (A): Allium sativa and Squilla are inimical remedies
Reason (R): Allium sativa and Squilla belongs to the same family

106. Assertion (A): J.H.Clarke’s Dictionary of Practical Materia medica was published in the year 1900
Reason (R): Symptoms of each medicine in J.H.Clarke’s Dictionary of Practical Materia medica is arranged in a schematic manner in 29 headings

107. Medicine for “Type writer’s paralysis” is

• (a) Stann met
• (b) Zinc met
• (c) Cup met
• (d) Plumb met

108. Which among the following is an inimical drug of Ran bulb

• (a) Sang can
• (b) Psorinum
• (c) Thuja
• (d) Sulphur

109. Pyrogenium gets

• (a) Aggravation from motion
• (b) Relief from motion
• (c) Better from heat
• (d) Aggravation after sleep

110. Kali iodide is suitable in which stage of syphilis

• (a) 1st stage
• (b) 2nd stage
• (c) 3rd stage
• (d) All stages

111. “Can emit urine only when he goes on his knees, pressing head firmly against the floor” is the symptom of

• (a) Pareira brava
• (b) Ocimum canum
• (c) Chimaphila
• (d) Acid phos

112. “Pain over Mc Burney’s point and at location of sigmoid flexure” indicated medicine is

• (a) X – ray
• (b) Rad bromide
• (c) Medorhinum
• (d) Cholesterinum

113. Which medicine has got the symptom “Aversion to butter”

• (a) Sabadilla
• (b) Bellis per
• (c) Ran bulb
• (d) Sang can

114. Who is the prover of Blatta orientalis

• (a) Dr. S.C.Ghosh
• (b) Pt. Iswar chandra
• (c) Dr. D.N.Ray
• (d) Dr. S.K.Ghosh

115. “The true physician is the man who knows how to make the best cures and the most expert healer is the man who knows best how to handle his Materia medica” Whose statement is this

• (a) Dr.C.Hering
• (b) Dr.J.T.Kent
• (c) Dr.S.Hahnemann
• (d) Dr.C.M.Boger

116. Match the following
Vegetable analogue   Chemical analouge

• A. Dulcamara            1. Kali iodide
• B. Phytolacca           2. Plumb met
• C. Ipecac                3. Kali sulph
• D. Podophyllum        4. Cuprum met

• (a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
• (b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
• (c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
• (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

117. “Fear of being assassinated” is seen in

• (a) Syphylinum
• (b) Plumb met
• (c) Phosphorus
• (d) Sambucus nigra

118. Find out the medicine from the following symptoms

• Suitable in hypertension without marked atheromatous changes in the vessels
• Insanity with violent maniacal symptoms
• It acts as a sedative
• Common name is Chandra

• (a) Crataegus
• (b) Allium sativa
• (c) Rouwolfia serpentina
• (d) Spartium scoparum

119. “Complaints worse every three weeks” is seen in

• (a) Mag carb
• (b) Nat carb
• (c) Kali carb
• (d) Stront carb

120. “Swelling and necrosis of lower jaw” is the symptom of

• (a) Hekla lava
• (b) Hekla lava & Phosphorus
• (c) Hekla lava, Phosphorus & Fluoric acid
• (d) Hekla lava, Phosphorus, Fluoric acid & Silicia

Download Answer Key : www.similima.com/pdf/materia-medica-model-questions-key.pdf

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Homeopathic Chikitsak
Subject Code-01
Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 100
Answer all questions. All questions carry equal marks.
Only one answer is to be given for each question.
If more than one answers are marked, it would be treated as wrong answer and will not be examined.
Itch item has four alternative responses marked serially1,2,3,4. The candidate have to darken only one circle or bubble indicating the correct answer on the Answer Sheet using BLUE BALL POINT PEN.
1/3 Part of the mark(s) of each question will be deducted of each wrong answer.(A wrong answer means an incorrect answer or more than one answer for any question . Leaving all the relevant circles or bubbles of any question blank will not be considered as wrong answer).
The candidate should indicate on the answer sheet, the correct alphabet of the Question Paper Series. The Alphabet mentioned by the candidate will not be changed later on and any mistake committed by the candidate,the answer sheet is likey to be rejected.

1. Magnum Opus is the work of

• (1)   Hhanemann         (2)   Lord Bacon
• (3)   Aristotle               (4)   Hippocrates

2.   Fragmenta de viribus medieamentorum positivis humano observitus was published in

• (1)  1810            (2)  1796            (3)  18           (4)  1821

3.   Mental disease are ——— disease.

• (1)  Acute   (2)  Chronic   (3)  Local      (4)   One sided

4.   Electrotherapy deals with sec. —————- of 6^th edition.

• (1)   285          (2)   285-286      (3)   286     (4)   284

5.   The name of 50 milisimal potency was given by

• (1)  Hering   (2)  Hahnemann  (3)  Boericke  (4) Dr. P.Schmidt

6.   With a family history of tuberculosis a few dose of Tuberculinum acts as —– remedy.

• (1)   Complementary                  (2)   Intercurrent
• (3)   Cognate                                  (4)   Antimiasmatic

7.  Who say’s “There is no disease, but sick people” ?

• (1)  Hahnemann               (2)  Kent
• (3)  St. Close                  (4)  Hippocrates

8.  The fifth edition of Organon was published from

• (1)  Leipsig   (2)  Kothen   (3)  Paris   (4)  Meissen

9.  Cullen was a Professor in

•  (1)  Botany     (2)   Zoology  (3)  Medicine   (4)  Veterinary

10.  Autocracy means

• (1) Self powered          (2) Powerless
• (3) Empower               (4) Self knowledge

11. Rubric word originated from

• (1) Rubrica   (2)  Rubric  (3)  Rubrecea   (4)  Rubrika

12. Symptom is derived from the ——- word symptoma.

• (1)  Latin   (2)   Greek   (3)  German   (4)  French

13.  First English repertory written by

• (1) Hering    (2)  Cipher  (3)  Lippe   (4)    Bryont

14.     Boenninghausen born in the year

• (1)   1812     (2)   1785  (3)   1793    (4)  1801

15.  Who is the father of clinical repertory ?

• (1)  Boger   (2)  Johr  (3)  Allen    (4)  None

16.  Diarhoea found in the chapter ———– in kent’s repertory .

• (1)  Rectum              (2)   Abdomen, Diarrhoea
• (3) Stool             (4)  Abdomen

17. Yawning found in chapter ————– of Kent’s repertory.

• (1) Respiration             (2)  Larynx, trachea
• (3)  Sleep                     (4)  Generalities

18.  Boericke repertory is a —– repertory.

• (1)  Clinical             (2)   Pathological
• (3)   General            (4)  Nosological

19. The size of globules vary from

• (1)  6 to 80      (2)  8 to 80     (3)  8 to 90   (4)  10 to 80

 20.  Pulstilla is included under class

• (1)  1^st    (2)  3^rd      (3)    5^th       (4)  2^nd

21.  For 1^st fifty millesimal scale potency, ——– potency of    titration is  needed.

• (1)  8 x                    (2) 4 x                     (3)  3C                    (4)  6C

22. Decimal scale was introduced by

• (1)  Dr.C.Hering   (2)  Hahnemann (3)  Hart Laub    (4)  None

23.   “Rx” Stands for the ——— word ‘Recipe”.

• (1)  Greek  (2)  Latin   (3)  German    (4)  None

24.‘British Homoeopathic Pharmacopoeia’ by British homoeopathic  society was published in

• (1)  1690  (2)  1774    (3)  1870    (4)  1940

25. The science that deals with different aspects of drug is

• (1)   Pharmacy                         (2)   Pharmacology
• (3)   pharmacochemistry     (4)   Pharmacogenetics

26. Desire to be let alone ; wants to lie down and sleep

• (1)  Aloes   (2)  Caps   (3)  Ign   (4)  Zinc

27. Children ; impudent, teasing, laugh at reprimands

• (1)  Croc.    (2)  Ign.  (3)  Graph.   (4)   all

28. Feel badly , week before menstruation.

• (1)  Puls.   (2)  Kali. C.  (3)  Sab.    (4)   Sep.

29. Baby cries all day, sleep all night.

• (1)  Psor   (2)   Jalapa   (3)  Lyco   (4)  Borax

30.  Progressive pernicious anaemia, neurasthenia

• (1)  Crat.   (2)  Ferr.Met.   (3) Val.   (4)Pic-acid.

31.Delirium alternating with colic

• (1)  coloc.   (2)  Cina.   (3)   Plumb.   (4) All

32.Sexual desire absent in fleshiy people

• (1)  calc. C.   (2)  Kali Bi.   (3)  Both   (4)  All

33.Severe headache before and during menses

• (1) Sil.    (2)   Ferr.M.   (3)  Actaea.R.    (4)   Kreos.

34.Headache  alternate with diarrhea, headache in winter, diarrhea in summer.

• (1)  Petro.   (2)   Led.    (3)   Staph.   (4)   Podo

35.Palpitation of heart is felt in the face

• (1)  Bell.   (2)  Lil.   (3)  Mur.ac.    (4)   Glon.

36. Breast cold as ice to touch , esp the nipple , rest of body warm  (during meses )

• (1)  Medo.   (2)  Sil.   (3)   Sec.   (4)  Merc.

37. Boger was student of

• (1)   Boenninghausen    (2)  Kent  (3)  Hahnemann  (4)  johr

38. Mental dsease is due to

• (1)  Psora   (2)   Pseudo psora   (3)   Sycosis    (4)  Syphilis

39.  Mention the drug which is prepared from the normal section of living animal.

• (1)  Adrenalin                        (2)  Adonis vernalis
• (3)  Actaea spicats        (4) Agraphis nutans

40. Idiosyncrasy is healpful in

• (1) assessment of prognosis   (2)  drug  proving
• (3) management of cases   (4)  case taking

41.Extreme hungereven when stomach is full of food

• (1) Iodium     (2)  China   (3) Staph.      (4)  Cal.Carb

42. The meaning of abbreviation  H.S. is

• (1) at bed time   (2) in the morning
• (3) tomorrow evening     (4)  every hour

43. A syctic patient desire for

• (1)   Sweet    (2)  Narcotic  (3)  Beer    (4)   Cod food

44. Mention which one is published by Authority of Government of India

•  (1)  Pharmacy                          (2)      Pharmacology
• (3) Pharmacodnamics             (4)     Pharmacopeia

45.  At the end of  treatment the anti –miasmatic medicine required is

• (1)    anti-suphilitic        (2)   anti sycotic
• (3)   anti psoric            (4)  antipseudopsoric

46. Mapped tongue , with involuntary urination when coughing, walking, laughing

• (1)  Causticum   (2)  Nat.Mur.  (3)  Taraxacum   (4)   Squilla

47.  Mention the name of drug which is to be triturated from liquid substance

•  (1)Acid Benzoic         (2)  Guaiacum
•  (3)  Petroleum           (4)  Iodine

48. Repertorisation start from

• (1) Case taking  (2) Evaluation  (3) Calculation  (4) Rubric hunting

49.   “Causam Tolle” means

• (1)   remove the cause              (2)  total cause of the disease
• (3)   totality of the symptom       (4)   proximate cause

50.  The father of Repertory is

• (1)   Hahnemann            (2)   Boenninghausen
• (3)  Kent                        (4)  Boger

51. Mention the vehicle by which you can prepare  liminent.

• (1)  Distilled water H2O     (2)   Alcohal
• (3) Glycerin                        (4)  Olive oil

52. Surgical removal of an organ causes

• (1)Palliation                      (2)  Suppression
• (3) Temporary relief      (4)  Cure

53. Cough> by lying on abdomen

• (1)  Medo.   (2)   Staph.   (3)   Cup.met.   (4)   Acet. Acid

54. Largest source of drug substances in homoeopathy is from

• (1)  Animal Kingdom         (2)   Plant Kingdom
• (3)  Mineral Kingdom        (4)   Synthetic chemicals

55. Menstruation is a ——— symptom.

• (1)  Particular                           (2)   Common general
• (3)  Peculiar particular       (4)   Peculiar general

56. Fidgety of hands

• (1) Zinc Met.   (2)  Kali.Br.   (3)  Cicuta V.   (4)  Medo.

57. Which is indicated for vertigo after fright ?

• (1)  Gels  (2)  Conium.  (3)  Silicea   (4)  Acon. Nap.

58.  “Concordance” meams

• (1)   Relationship between two remedies
• (2)  Concomitant
• (3)   Characteristic symptom
• (4)  All

59. Drug power of class-3^rd is

• (1)1/6    (2) 1/2   (3)  1/10 (4)  1/100

 60.Mercury’s vegetable analogue is

• (1)  Podo.   (2)  Mez.   (3)   Sil.   (4)  Phyto.

61. “Spanish fly” is the common name of

• (1) Causticum          (2)  Cantharis
• (3)  Teribinth            (4)  Tarantula

62.  All the complementary except

• (1)  Ignatia, Nat.Mur.              (2)  Merec. Sol
• (3)  Bell., Cal.                         (4)  Apis, Nat. Mur.

63.Hear better when in a noise

• (1) Aconite  (2)  Thuja  (3)  Graph    (4)  Belladona

64.Canot bear the smell or sight of food

• (1)  Arsenic alb.           (2)  Ammonium carb
• (3)  Cal. Carb.             (4)  Aethusa cynapium

65. Bed feels hard

• (1)  Pyrogen     (2)   Bap  (3)  Arnica   (4)  Opium

66. Anaemia is found under chapter ——- of BBCR.

• (1)  Circulation   (2)  Blood   (3)  Generalities  (4)  Sensation

67.  Teeth decay at edges

• (1)  Staph.  (2)  Thuja  (3)   Kreosote   (4)  Mag C.

68.  “Chronischen Krankheiten” means

• (1) Chronic diseases              (2)  Chronic miasm
• (3)  Deep acting drugs           (4)  Crude drugs

69. Aura begins from heart, medicine in Kent’s repertory

• (1)  Cal. Ars.  (2)  Lachesis  (3)  Bufo Rana   (4)  Aur. Met.

70.  Which of the following is not a common feature of Anorexia Nervosa ?

• (1)   Binge eating                               (2)  Amenorrhea
• (3)    Self perception of being “fat”      (4)  Underweight

71.   Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of non-cirrhotic portal hypertention ?

• (1) Chronic liver failure                                  (2)   Ascities
• (3) Upper gastrointestinal bleeding         (4)  Encephalopathy

72. Joint erosions are not a feature of

• (1)   Rheumatoid arthritis
• (2)   Psoriasis
• (3)   Multicentrei reticulohistiocytosis
• (4)   Systemic lupus erythematosus

73. Apart from Escherichia coli, the other most common organism implicated in acute suppuative bacterial peritonitis is

• (1)   Bacteroides                       (2)   Klebsiella
• (3)   Pepto streptococcus      (4)   Pseudomonas

74.  The most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction is India as

• (1)   Tuberculosis                              (2)   Cancer of stomach
• (3)   Duodenal lymphoma              (4)   Peptic ulcer disease

75.  Which vitamin deficient is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who on phenytoin therapy for epilepsy ?

• (1)   Vitamin B6          (2)  Vitamin B12
• (3)   Vitamin A            (4)  Folic acid

76.  The following omplications during pregnancy increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) except

• (1)  Hypertention         (2)   Macrosomia
• (3)  Twin pregnancy    (4)   Hydramnios

77.    Palpable purpura could occur in the following condition, except

• (1)  thrombocytopenia
• (2)  Small-vessel vasculitis
• (3)  Disseminated gonococcal infection
• (4)  Acute meningococcemia

78.  All of the following can cause osteoporosis, except

• (1)   Hyperparathyrodism     (2)   Steroid use
• (3)   Fluorosis                       (4)   Thyrotoxicosis

79.    All of the following conditions are known to cause diabetes insipidus except

• (1)  Multiple sclerosis       (2)   Head injury
• (3)  Histiocytosis              (4)  Viral encephalitis

80.  All of the following CSF findings are present in tuberculous meningitis, except

• (1)  Raised protein levels      (2)   Low chloride levels
• (3)  Cob web formation       (4)   Raised sugar levels

81.Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following, except

• (1)   Myelopathy                        (2)   Optic atrophy
• (3)   Peripheral neuropathy         (4)   Myopathy

82.  A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates one of the     following:

• (1)  Breast abscess       (2)   Fibroadenoma
• (3)  Duct papilloma       (4)  Fat necrosis of breast

83.The most common complication seen in hiatus hernia is

• (1)   Oesophagitis           (2)   Aspiration pneumonitis
• (3)   Volvulus                 (4)   Esophageal stricture

84.  All are the causes of intra uterine growth retardation,  except

• (1)  Anaemia                        (2)  Pregnancy induced hypertention
• (3)  Maternal heart disease    (4)  Gestational diabetes

85.    Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely  contraindicated in pregnancy :

• (1)  Hepatitis-B               (2)  Cholera
• (3)  Rabies                      (4)  Yellow fever

86.   The most common cause of secondary amenorrhoea in India is

• (1)  Endometrial tuberculosis        (2)  Premature ovarian failure
• (3)  Polycystic ovarian syndrome  (4)  Sheehan”s syndrome

87.   All of the following are used as proxy measure for incubation   period, except

• (1)   Latent period         (2)   Period of communicability
• (3)   Serial interval         (4)   Generation time

      88.    All of the following are the mode of transmission of leprosy, except

• (1)   Breast milk                      (2)   Insect bite
• (3)   Transplacental spread      (4)   Droplet infection

89.  The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis  infection in a community is

• (1)   Mass miniature Radiotherapy
• (2)   Sputum Examination
• (3)   Tuberculin Test
• (4)   Clinical Examination

90. Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a treatment for all, except

• (1)  Osteopetrosis                (2)  Adrenoleucodystrophy
• (3)   Hurler’s Syndrome        (4)  Hemochromatosis

91.  Polycystic disease of the kidney may have cysts in all of the following organ, except

• (1)  Lung    (2)  Liver   (3)   Pancreas   (4)  Spleen

92. Persistent vomiting most likely causes

• (1)  Hyperkalemia         (2)   Acidic urine excretion
• (3)  Hypochloroemia     (4)   Hyperventilation

93. In Budd chiari syndrome, the site of venous thrombosis is

• (1)  Infrahepatic inferior vena cava
• (2)  Infrarenal inferior vena cava
• (3)  Hepatic veins
• (4)  Portal veins

94.Estimation of the following hormones is useful while   investigating a case of gynaecomastia, except

• (1)  Testosterone                           (2)  Prolactin
• 3)  Estradiol                                 (4)  Lutenizingharmone

95. The most common site of intestinal obstruction in gall stone ileus is

• (1) Jejunum                      (2) Ileum
• (3) Transverse colon         (4) Sigmoid colon

96. Which of the following type of pancreatitis has the best prognosis ?

• (1) Alcoholic pancreatitis           (2) Gall stone pancreatitis
• (3) Post operative pancreatitis   (4) Idiopathic pancreatitis

97. Which of the following is not an important cause of hyponatremia ?

• (1)  Gastric fistula             (2)  Excessive vomiting
• (3)  Excessive sweating    (4)  Prolonged Ryle’s tube aspiration

98. All of the following conditions are risk factor for urinary tract infections in pregnancy, except

• (1)  Diabetes                            (2)  Hppertention
• (3)  Sickle cell anaemia        (4)  Vesicoureteral reflux

99. In one single visit , a 9-month old, unimmunized child can be given the following vaccination :

• (1)  Only BCG                              (2)  BCG, DPT_1, OPV-1
• (3)  DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles  (4)  BCG, DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles

100.The organism most commonly causing genital filariasis in most part of Bhihar and Eastern U.P. is

• (1)  Wuchereria bancrofti     (2)  Brugia malayi
• (3)  Onchocerca volvulus     (4)  Dirofilaria

Courtesy : We are thankful to Dr. Jagdish Choudhary for providing this question paper

 All rights reserved @ similima

Maximum : 100 marks.
Time : 2 hours.
Write the answers in English.
Answer all questions.
Answers should be accurate and brief.
Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.

1. Trigeminal nerve is the………cranial nerve:

• (A) 6^th    (B) 4^th
• (C) 5^th    (D) 3^rd

2. Peaud’ orange appearance is diagnostic:

• (A) Melanoma    (B) Lymphoma
• (C) CA ovary      (D) CA breast

3. All the following malignant tumors show metastatis EXCEPT:

• (A) Synovial carcinoma  (B) Malignant neurothelioma
• (C) Glioma                            (D) Neuroblastoma

4. Cricoid cartilage is seen in:

• (A) Larynx                     (B) Thyroid
• (C)Maxillary sinus      (D) Pharynx

5. The principal lipoprotein secreted by liver is :

• (A) HDL                 (B) LDL
• (C) Chylomycin  (D) VLDL

6.The most common site for thyroglossal cyst is:

• (A) Suprahyoid              (B) Subhyoid
• (C) foramen caecum      (D) Antiborder of sternocledomasloid

7. Remedy for the after effect of mountain climbing

• (A) Rhustox                   (B) Bryonia
• (C) Bellis perenis           (D) Coca

8. Commonest site for colorectal CA is :

• (A) Caecum                   (B) Transverse colon
• (C) Rectosigmoid          (D) Splenic flexure

9. When susceptibility is more

• (A) Potency should be low         (B) Potency high
• (C) Potency medium                  (D) Mother tinctures are used

10.When the patients recollects the events preceding the illness —said as

• (A) Catamnesis              (B) Anamnesis
• (C) Past History             (D) None of the above

11. Human development index HDI is

• (A) Longevity                (B) Knowledge
• (C) Income                    (D) All of the above

12.Differential diagnosis of bleeding PV following 2 months amenorrhoea include all Except

• (A) Abortion                      (B) Vesicular mole
• (C) Ectopic pregnancy   (D) Fibroid uterus

13. Section 375 IPC is for

• (A) Sadism                    (B) Sodomy
• (C) Rape                        (D) Tribadism

14. EB virus infection is associated with cancer of :

• (A) Nasopharynx           (B) Skin
• (C) Lung                             (D) Cervix

15. A nosode is

• (A) Ambragrisea                        (B) Secale Cor
• (C) Malandrinum                        (D) All the above

16.The oval depression (fossa ovalis) is seen in

• (A) Interventricular septum          (B) Posterior part of atrium
• (C) Inter atrial septum                     (D) Post part of Rt Ventricle

17. A potent vaso constrictor and activator of platelet aggregation :

• (A) Nitric oxide                          (B) Histamin
• (C) Prostacyclin                         (D) Thromboxane A2

18. Which one is the clinical materia medica?

• (A) E.A. Faringtons cinical material medica
• (B) Clarke’s prescriber
• (C) H.C. Allen’s, keynote
• (D) All the above

19.Hahenmann’s last medical work of fundamental importance is

• (A) Chronic diseases                 (B) IVth edition ofrganon
• (C) Materia Medica Pura 3^rd edn  (D) A medical historical dissertation

20. Bitter regret arising from the repentance of past misdeeds —Rubric

• (A) Libertinism               (B) Remorse
• (C) Reproaches               (D) Capriciousness

21.Entry and multiplication of organism in the body is called :

• (A) Infection                     (B) Infestation
• (C) Contamination          (D) Pollution

22. Chocolate cyst of ovary is a condition seen in

• (A) Follicular cyst          (B) Endometriosis
• (C) Corpus luteal cyst    (D) Serous cystadenoma

23. Carbomates or furidan is a derivative of

• (A) Carbonic acid               (B) Methoxychlor
• (C) Benzene hexchloride(D) Cyclodiene

24.The best single test to confirm iron deficiency anaemia

• (A) Serum iron                           (B) Plasma ferritin
• (C) Transerin saturationn      (D) Stool occult blood

25. The following offences are cognizable offence

• (A) Rape                       (B) Murder
• (C) Ragging                  (D) All of the above

26.The most common type of carcinoma endometrium is :

• (A) Adenocarcinorna      (B) Papillary serous CA
• (C) Sarcoma                         (D) Squamous cell CA

27.Epizootic is :

• (A) Outbreak of epidemics in birds
• (B) Outbreak of epidemics in animals
• (C) Diseases imported into a country
• (D) Disease transmitted from vertebrate to man

28.Hypersegmentation of neutrophils are characteristic of :

• (A) Vit. B12 & folate deficiency  (B) Iron deficiency
• (C) Hypersplenism                     (D) Thalassemia.

29.Euthanasia. is:

• (A) Homicide                 (B) Suicide
• (C) Mercy killing                        (D) None of the above

30. Which of the following is 2^nd  degree uterine prolapse

• (A) Descent of cervix into the vagina      (B) Descent of cervix upto the introitus
• (C) Descent of cervix outside the introitus (D) All the uterus outside the introitus

31. Managerial tool for improving MCH care is:

• (A) Service approach     (B) Cafeteria approach
• (C) Welfare approach     (D) Risk approach

32. The father of the repertory is

• (A) Boenninghausen      (B) Boger
• (C) Kent                        (D) Knerr

33. A simple homoeopathic aggravation:

• (A) Occurs when the medicine is a similimum
• (B) Occurs due to a slight increase in the close
• (C) The patient will be feeling well
• (D) All of the above

34.Tumor markers for Hepato Cellular CAis:

• (A) Carcino embryonic antigen   (B) 5-hydroxy indole acetic acid
• (C) Alpha-feto protein                (D) Gastrin

35.Total no. of medicines in the 1^st volume of materia medica pura is:

• (A) 40   (B) 30
• (C) 2 7  (D) 29

36. Which is a branched chain am

• (A) Glycine        (B) Valine
• (C) Aalanine      (D) Methionine

37. The angular notch (incisura angularis) is present in the:

• (A) Lesser curvature of stomach (B) Greater curvature of stomach
• (C) Upper part of stomach         (D) Ooesophagus

38.CV is abbreviation for

• (A) Tomorrow morning   (B) Tomorrow night
• (C) Tomorrow evening    (D) Tomorrow noon

39. Kerly’s lines are characteristically seen in :

• (A) Left heart failure                   (B) Right heart failure
• (C) Superior venacaval obstruction (D) Inferior venacaval obstruction

40.First Homoeopathic pharmacopia in the world

• (A) German Homoeopathic pharmacopia
• (B) British Homoeopathic pharmacopia
• (C) Homoeopathic pharmacopia for the United States of America
• (D) Hommeopathic pharmacopia of India

41. Age for marriage contract :

• (A) Female 18 and male 20
• (B) Female 19 and male 21
• (C) Female 20 and male 22
• (D) Both at 20 yrs of age

42. Constant dribbling of urine in females may be due to-

• (A) Ureteric fistula          (B) Urethro vaginal Fistula
• (C) Vesicovaginal fistula  (D) Uretro abdominal fistula

43. Leding morbidity among geriatric population in India:

• (A) Skeleto muscular problem    (B) Respiratory problem
• (C) Visual impairment                 (D) Neurological problems

44.Aschoff bodies in rheumatic carditis is a

• (A) Keynote symptom                (B) Pathognomic symptom
• (C) Concomittant symptom        (D) Chief symptom

45. Homoeopathy is defined is ” system of therapeutics based on natural laws by

• (A) H.A. Robert             (B) Dunham
• (C) Stuart Close             (D) Pierre Smith

46.”Onion ring” in the X-ray is suggestive of:

• (A) Ewings tumor           (B) Giant cell tumor
• (C) Osteosarcoma         (Di Chondrosarcoma

47. Alumina is the Chronic of

• (A) Rhustox       (B) Plumbm met
• (C) Sulphur        (D) Bryonia

48.In Alcoholics combined thiamine deficiency leads to:

• (A) Arrythemia   (B) Wernickes disease
• (C) Cirrhosis      (D) Hepatitis

49.The jejunum can anatomically identified by :

• (A) The presence of ridges of    (B) Smoothness of parts
• (C) Fatty swelling                       (D) None of the above

50.Lepromin test is always +ve in :

• (A) Lepromatous leprosy           (B)Tuberculoid leprosy
• (C) Border line lepromatous       (D) In determinate leprosy

51. Inciplastic anaemia there is generally

• (A) Relative neutrophilia             (B) Relative lymphocytosis
• (C) Microcytosis                                    (D) Reficulo cyte count normal

52. Major complication of typhoid ulcer is :

• (A) Intestinal obstruction            (B) Intestinal perforation
• (C) Malabsorption                      (D) Fistula formation

53. Pharmakon means:

• (A) Poison        (B) Medicine
• (C) Drug            (D) Crude drug

54.Dermoid cyst is a

• (A) Mature teratoma       (B) Immature teratoma
• (C) Potent malignant tumor        (D)None of the above

55. Deficiency of cobalt may manifest as.

• (A) Megaloblastic anaemia         (B) Goitre
• (C) Infertility                              (D) Ischaemic heart dis

56. Diagnostic rubrics can be seen in

• (A) Kents repertory        (B) Bogers repertory
• (C) Jahr’s repertory        (D) Knerr’s repertory

57. Soft sore is produced by

• (A) Haemophilus aegypticus      (B) Donovania granulomatis
• (C) Haemohilns ducrei                (D) Lymphogranuloma vencrum

58. Molluscum contagiosum is caused by:

• (A) Papillonia virus        (B) Herpes virus
• (C) Pox vinis                 (D) EB virus

59. The quantity of medicine to be given to a patient at a time : (A)

• (A) Dose                       (B) Potency
• (C) Smilimum         (D) None of the above

60. Common anorectal abscess

• (A) Perianal       (B) Submucous
• (C) Ischiorectal  (D) Pelvirectal

61. In Argyll-Rotoertson pupil :

• (A) Light response retains and accommodation response is lost
• (B) Light response lost  & accommodation reflex intact
• (C) Both light and accommodation response lost
• (D) None of the above

62.Liver weighs about :

• (A) 2% of adult body wt (B)4% of adult body wt
• (C) 1% of adult body wt (D) 3% of adult body wt

63.Vulvovaginitis in children is due to:

• (A) Gonococcus                        (B) E.coli
• (C) Trivaginalis              (D) All of the above

64. Pancreatic CA at the following sites more often produce obstructive jaundice

• (A) Head           (B) Body
• (C) Tail              (D) Uncinate process

65. River blindness is caused by:

• (A) Loa loa                                (B) Onchocerca volvulus
• (C) Mansonella Ozzardi              (D) Direfilans immitis

66. Tinctura acrisine kali is:

• (A) Causticum   (B) Kali iodide
• (C) Hepar sulph (D) Kali brom

67. Rrepertory is based on the philosophy of deductive logic

• (A) Boger
• (B) Boeninghausen’s therapeutic pocket book
• (C) Synthetic repertory
• (D) Kent

68. Totality of symptoms homoeopathically means:

• (A) Mathematical totality
• (B) Diagnostic totality
• (C) Mental picture
• (D) Disease which depict the individuality of the patient

69. Blood stained nipple discharge is seen in:

• (A) Duct carcinoma        (B) Chronic mastitis
• (C) Scirrhous CA           (D) Mammilary fistula

70.Reedstern bery cells are diagnostic of :

• (A) Hodgskin’s lymphoma          (B) Non-Hodgskin’s lymphoma
• (C) Burkit’s lymphoma               (D) Hammartoma

71.Atherosclerosis is predominantly disease of :

• (A) Intima          (B) Media
• (C) Adventitia    (D) Entire vessel wall

72.First natri uritic hormone is isolated

• (A) Brain           (B) Heart
• (C) Stomach      (D) Intestine

73.Complementary for Thuja is:

• (A) Sabadilla     (B) Sarassaparilla
• (C) Sabina         (D) Sanguinaria

74. Rheumatic pains of right wrist:

• (A) Lycopodium                        (B)Viola odorata
• (C) Arnica                      (D) Sanguinaria

75.Chop wounds are produced by:

• (A) A knife        (B) Large nail
• (C) An axe         (D) Screw driver

76.Massive enlargement of spleen occurs generally from following EXCEPT:

• (A) Chronic myeloid leukaemia   (B) C.V.C. spleen
• (C)’Thalassemia major                (D)Chronic malaria

77.Blue green pus in lesions are seen in:

• (A) Tapeworm infection  (B) Cl. tetani
• (C) Pseudomonas         (D) Borrelia

78. Aconite belongs to family :

• (A) Apocynaceae           (B) Ranamculaceae
• (C) Labiatae                  (D) Rutaceae

79.First card repertory :

• (A) Gurnsey’s card – 1888           (B) Dr. Margaret Tyler’s card – 1912
• (C) Welch and Houston – 1913   (D) Field’s card – 1922

80. Casoni’s test is used in

• (A) Leprosy                   (B) Lieshmaniasis
• (C) Hybrid disease         (D) Diphtheria

81.Pleural effusion occurs in :

• (A) Subphrenic abscess             (B) Pulmonary TB
• (C) Heart failure                         (D) All of the above

82. Which of the following produces Haematuria?

• (A) Pinworm                              (B) Whipworm
• (C) Shistosoma Haematobium    (D) None of the above

83. Salivary enzymes are seen in——-granules of salivary glands

• (A) Metachromatic         (B) Babes Ernst
• (C) Zymogen                 (D) Lipid

84. Majority of cases of membranous glomerulo nephritis has aetiology:

• (A) SLE             (B) Viral infection
• (C) H/O drugs    (D) Idiopathic

85. Epilepsy with valvular diseases of heart

• (A) Buforana                 (B) Calcarea ars
• (C) Causticum               (D) Plumbum met

86. Patchy consolidation is the hallmark of:

• (A) Lobar pneumonia     (B) Hypostatic pneumonia
• (C) Broncho pneumonia (D) Viral pneumonia

87.Mentally alert , fearful, anxious and easily irritated is a:

• (A) Psoric symptom      (B) Sycotic symptom
• (C) Tubercular symptom  (D) None of the above

88.Intense renal colic, pain in ureter withsensation of passing calculus and craving-ice :

• (A) Medorrhinum                        (B) Syphilinum
• (C) Sulphur                                (D) Cantharis

89.Water-can-pereneum- is a feature of

• (A) E.coli infection         (B) Proteus
• (C) Klebsiella                 (D) Gonoeoccus

90.The first source book of hom. relating materia medica

• (A) Fragmeta de verebus medicamentururn positivus
• (B) M.M. Pura
• (C) Guiding symptoms
• (D) Cyclopedia of drug pathogenicity

91. The drug belongs to animal kingdom:

• (A) Asterias rubens        (B) Ustilago
• (C) Colocynth                (D) All of the above

92.All the following includes JONE’s major criteria for rheumatic fever :

• (A) Sydenhams chorea              (B) Erythema marginatum
• (C) Subcutaneous nodule           (D) Leueocytosis

93. A person feels severe chest pain in :

• (A) Wet drowning                       (B) Dry drowning
• (C) Secondary drowning                        (D) Near drowning

94. Blood volume in pregnancy increases by:

• (A) 20%            (B) 40-45b%
• (C) 10%            (D) 60%

95. Vector of Dengue fever is :

• (A) Mansania     (B) Culex
• (C) Aedes             (D) Anopheles

96. Absence of thirst in fever is a :

• (A) Negative symptom   (B) Basic symptom
• (C) Periodical symptom (D) Eliminative symptom

97.Hahnemann published the 1^st edition of materia medica pura on:

• (A) 1811            (B) 1812
• (C) 1818            (D) 1820

98. Granulation tissue refers to:

• (A) Slough and blood    (B) Inflammatory exudate
• (C) Platelet and fibrin     (D) Capillaries and fibrobIasts

99. Bnyonia acts on :

• (A) Serous membranes  (B) Bone
• (C) Cartilage                       (D) Muscle

100. Calcitonin is produced by:

• (A) Thyroid                      (B) Thymus
• (C) Parathyroid              (D) Kidney

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Rajasthan PSC Homoeopathy Medical Officer – Model Question Paper

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